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Yes or no. I want factual evidence to support your opinions.

2007-12-21 06:09:32 · 8 answers · asked by GomerPyle 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

8 answers

Fact:
We do not know which tribal remains found in the America's belong to the Lamanites/Nephites, if any. The church does not claim to know which tribe it was, only that they were here pre-400 BC.

There is much speculation among LDS apologists and archealogists about who it might be and who fits the descriptions given in the Book of Mormon, but no one knows for sure. It is all theory and conjecture at this point.

I figure, it's not important to know who it was exactly. Has absolutely no bearing on my ability to follow the Lord's commandments and my salvation and exaltation.

2007-12-21 15:38:54 · answer #1 · answered by Raising6Ducklings! 6 · 1 0

No factual evidence is available. The only connection so far is that the culture dissolved around 400 AD. This is the same as the end of the Nephites.

2007-12-21 07:40:01 · answer #2 · answered by Isolde 7 · 2 1

I disagree with Drizzt. Not all ancestors of the Native Americans are lamanites. Very few actually, the peoples of the book of Mormon were only a small group compared to the rest of the population in the Americas. That's like saying the Israelites were ancestors of all Europeans and middle easterners.

2007-12-21 08:45:55 · answer #3 · answered by Brother G 6 · 5 1

All the Native Americans are descendants of the people in the Book of Mormon.

2007-12-21 06:16:58 · answer #4 · answered by . 7 · 3 2

No. There is no factual evidence to support the Book of Mormon -- no historical, archaeological, linguistic, or genetic evidence for it. In fact, the evidence disproves the historical claims of Mormonism. The Native Americans were not descended from the 12 Lost Tribes of Israel. They came from Asia across the Bering Straight during the Ice Age. That is not to say that Mormonism doesn't have spiritual value, just that it isn't based on verifiable history. This idea was based more on 19th Century racism than on any factual evidence.

2007-12-21 06:17:45 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 8

Since there is no evidence that connects the two I would say it is not likely.

The claimant of such a connection is required to provide the documented, testable, and verifiable proof for such a claim.

with out that proof, the rest of us....

... just don't think so since there is no proof.

2007-12-21 06:15:20 · answer #6 · answered by ? 6 · 2 1

Who knows. I always thought it might have been the Mayans. Extensive cities, advanced culture, mysteriously disappeared suddenly... If you're looking for scholary studies on the subject, I'd recommend checking out the F.A.R.M.S. website at BYU.edu

2007-12-21 06:16:59 · answer #7 · answered by Open Heart Searchery 7 · 5 1

No.

http://www.irr.org/mit/smithson.html

2007-12-23 19:05:26 · answer #8 · answered by Unrepentant Fenian Bastard 4 · 2 5

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