I've read that St. Ambrose (suspected of being gay) was translating ancient scripture to the Latin Vulgate Bible. He didn't know how to handle a certain passage so he came up with "good will". Actually no such thing in ancient Judaism or Greek. Scholars say it really translated more to "satisfaction"! Why can't I get a Christmas card with, Peace on Earth to Men of Satisfaction?
2007-12-21 04:05:03 · 3 answers · asked by JIMMY 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
It was Jerome and "goodwill" is the closest translation to the meaning of the word.
2007-12-21 04:10:22 · answer #1 · answered by Bill Mac 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
By "good will" he likely would have been referring to the ability to wish others well or to "will" goodness for others.
So I have to ask why you think that Jews and Greeks didn't think this possible?
2007-12-21 04:09:34 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
You get one if you join the Mick Jagger fan club.
2007-12-21 04:07:57 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋