First off, some books of the NT had not yet been written when John wrote the book of Revelation, and even those that had been written and were in existence at that time had not yet been gathered into one compilation.
Secondly, the warning uses the words “the prophecy of this book” and also “the words of the book of this prophecy.” The word book in both instances is singular.
Thirdly, it is also interesting to note that John himself added to scripture after writing the book of Rev., which is generally conceded to have been written while he was on the Isle of Patmos. It was long after John left Patmos that he wrote his first epistle.
Fourthly, in the OT also are found similar vigorous denunciations and commands that there shall not be added to the words that were written. (See Deut. 4:2. and Deut. 12:32). If the same interpretation and argument was applied to them as is applied to the closing verses of the book of Revelation, there would be no scriptures after the writings of Moses.
2007-12-18
20:23:24
·
5 answers
·
asked by
Arthurpod
4
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
Dreads, what bearing does that have on the idea that Rev 22:18 is speaking of the Book of Revelation and not the entire Bible? I also believe that if anything contradicts the Gospel that has been preached to us then we should reject it. But is Paul saying that God will not ever reveal more of his words than that which he has already revealed? Is Paul saying God will stop speaking to his children after the Bible is compiled?
2007-12-18
20:50:24 ·
update #1