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http://www.bibletruths.net/Sermons/BTSO140.htm

2007-12-18 06:34:01 · 20 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

And if all they had was "a binding contract" .... why have I not heard of this before ....?

2007-12-18 06:36:40 · update #1

THANKS for not attacking me for this question .. :) It does seem like there is a lot of confusion about this... thanks!

2007-12-18 06:44:14 · update #2

20 answers

They were hippies.

2007-12-18 06:37:12 · answer #1 · answered by S K 7 · 3 2

They were espoused to one another, a contract to be married meaning they could "date" no others, when Mary became pregnant. Joseph would have divorced her, necessary with the espoused contract, but was told not to by an angel. It doesn't say that they were married, it says she remained a virgin until after the birth of Jesus. They had other children later, so they did get married. In those days, they would have been stoned to death if they weren't married. I believe they married quickly before she started showing with child or they would have stoned both of them, and they could not have traveled together before the birth of Jesus if they weren't married. (When the Bible was written, they left those details out because it was a given that they were married sometime after the angel told Joseph not to divorce her.)

2007-12-18 15:01:48 · answer #2 · answered by gigglings 7 · 0 0

Under jewish law, which is what is important, they were married enough to require a divorce to undo their relationship, if they so desired (and it appeared that Joseph so desired at one point).

Therefore, if they had not consummated their marriage, as both claim, and Mary shows up pregnant one day, the only reasonable conclusion is that she either committed adultery or was raped.

So, with this in mind, was the whole, 'God knocked me up' story concocted just to avoid the adulterer label?

Personally, I think the answer is much more simple. That is, neither Joseph or Mary or anyone else who knew them came up with this story. It was a later addition, added long after all the principals were dead and buried, as a sales gimmick to attract the highly superstitious pagans to this new religion, especially after the Jews soundly rejected it.

2007-12-18 15:04:16 · answer #3 · answered by mzJakes 7 · 1 0

When Mary became preggers with Jesus, she and Joseph were married on paper only (so to speak)
After the marriage agreement was reached, the bride accepted the groom, then there was approximately a year when they were married, but do not live together or consummate the relationship physically. During that time, he would go home and build a room on his fathers house for his bride, and she would spend the year preparing herself for live as a wife
To break the agreement, they would have had to divorce.
You can assume she went to live with Joseph before Jesus was born, simply because she went with him to Bethlehem.

2007-12-18 14:40:32 · answer #4 · answered by Sister blue eyes 6 · 3 0

Yes, they were. Matthew 1:18-19 says: Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost. Then Joseph her husband, being a just [man], and not willing to make her a publick example, was minded to put her away privily.

To "put her away" would have been to divorce her.

They hadn't been intimate before Jesus was conceived.

2007-12-18 14:39:52 · answer #5 · answered by Little Red Hen 2.0 7 · 4 0

Joseph and Mary were betrothed to each other, although they did marry before Jesus was born. All of the records showing lineage and marriages was burned by Herod when he burned the library down, so the only proof of their marriage was the scrolls and letters that made it into the canon of the Bible.

2007-12-18 14:51:12 · answer #6 · answered by ♛Qu€€n♛J€§§¡¢a♛™ 5 · 0 0

Very good question, Smarty Pants !

They were promised to marry and therefore they talked to each other as husband and wife, but it was not sealed with the copulation of the marriage, until after Jesus was conceived by the Holy Ghost, I am sure they needed no reason to wait any further :)

Luk 2:4 And Joseph also went up from Galilee, out of the city of Nazareth, into Judaea, unto the city of David, which is called Bethlehem; (because he was of the house and lineage of David:)
Luk 2:5 To be taxed with Mary his espoused wife, being great with child.

Look at the father, and the Father,

Luk 2:48 And when they saw him, they were amazed: and his mother said unto him, Son, why hast thou thus dealt with us? behold, thy father and I have sought thee sorrowing.
Luk 2:49 And he said unto them, How is it that ye sought me? wist ye not that I must be about my Father's business?

2007-12-18 14:44:35 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

They were not married at the time Mary became pregnant or when they arrived in Bethlehem. [Luke 2:4-7] This is part of the standard Nativity narrative, though this aspect of it is not often emphasized when presenting it to children.
They were married at some point, though, as later Mary is referred to as Joseph's wife.

2007-12-18 14:45:32 · answer #8 · answered by The First Dragon 7 · 1 0

you are not schooled in Hebrew but if you were you would understand that at the time of Jesus conception Mary and Joseph were engaged. Engagement was as legally binding as marriage. If the engagement was to be disolved the husband would legally have to divorce his fiance.

2007-12-18 14:41:05 · answer #9 · answered by gtahvfaith 5 · 3 0

im an athiest n i no that they were. It says in that JOseph was thinkin of divorcing Mary and then the angel appeared to Joseph and the next day he married her.

I think thats how the story goes anyway

2007-12-18 14:40:31 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 3 0

Yes. Matthew Chapter 1 verse 19 Then Joseph her husband being a just man, and not willing to make her a publick example, was minded to put her away privily. keep reading Matthew for more on their marriage.

2007-12-18 14:42:59 · answer #11 · answered by Medicine Woman 7 · 3 0

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