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how is it that the Holy Bible had never mentioned that Mary was quickened in her mother's womb but John was....Luk 1:41 And it came to pass, that, when Elisabeth heard the salutation of Mary, the babe leaped in her womb; and Elisabeth was filled with the Holy Ghost:


Q1) so..... John mus also be immaculately conceived, since this is mentioned in the Holy Bible??

Q2) is there any Old Testament prophecies that say........an immaculate shall conceived........???

I only know that .....a virgin shall conceive........



Balaam's A S S is asking!



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2007-12-04 19:41:59 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

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Cindy..
Sorry, the babe was quickened in the womb, just like prophet Jeremiah......
....Jer 1:5 Before I formed thee in the belly I knew thee; and before thou camest forth out of the womb I sanctified thee, and I ordained thee a prophet unto the nations.


Is there any evidence that Mary was ever quickened in her mother's womb??? to even consider immaculate conception of Mary??


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2007-12-04 19:48:28 · update #1

8 answers

You don't realize that John went around preaching the coming of the Messiah and repentance? That John was the new Elijah? That the Holy Spirit coming upon him in the womb made him a prophet????
You should compare what they both said. Maybe then this will give you a clue.

2007-12-04 19:48:38 · answer #1 · answered by great gig in the sky 7 · 1 0

1. Every human being is quickened, that is the sign of first movement and used to be under theology until recently (1894) that at the first movement is when the quickening (the soul enters the body) happens and why movement can be felt from then on. Immaculate conception has nothing to do with virgin birth, so no John was not a virgin birth or immaculate. (the bible does not mentioned I or you were quickened in our mother's wombs, but we were or else we would not be here and have a soul)

2. Yes in Isaiah it says a virgin will conceive, but the idea of Mary being immaculate refers not to her status as a virgin but the immaculate sinlessness of her soul to be preserved as a pure vessel to be the theokotos.

2007-12-04 19:53:03 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

The moment of quickening refers to the initial motion of the fetus in the uterus.

The story of John the Baptist jumping in his mother's womb is meant to illustrate that John recognized his first cousin as the Lord while in the womb. Not the other way around. What purpose would it serve to tell of Jezu's first kick at Mary's bladder? She was probably doing routine chores when it happened anyway.

We Catholics read the Word analogically and allegorically. Very few passages are meant to be taken literally. Some of the greatest evolutionary minds have been and are Catholic priests (Mendel) and lay persons.

We are the largest religous body on the planet and probably the most misunderstood. Throw your darts elsewhere.

2007-12-04 20:04:11 · answer #3 · answered by InSeattle 3 · 0 0

What do you mean by "quickened"? Are you suggesting that certain people were conceived and born in less than the natural nine-month period?

The Bible makes no distiction in these matters with the people you've mentioned.

Q1) Luke 1:41 - And when Elizabeth heard the greeting of Mary, the babe leaped in her womb; and Elizabeth was filled with the Holy Spirit

As you can see, the babe leapt IN the womb, not FROM it. Therefore, this citation cannot be used as evidence suggesting John the Baptist was born early.


Q2) There are a number of Biblical verses that teach Mary is the Immaculate Ark of the New Covanent:

Exodus 25:11-21 - the ark of the Old Covenant was made of the purest gold for God's Word. Mary is the ark of the New Covenant and is the purest vessel for the Word of God made flesh.

2 Sam. 6:7 - the Ark is so holy and pure that when Uzzah touched it, the Lord slew him. This shows us that the Ark is undefiled. Mary the Ark of the New Covenant is even more immaculate and undefiled, spared by God from original sin so that she could bear His eternal Word in her womb.

1 Chron. 13:9-10 - this is another account of Uzzah and the Ark. For God to dwell within Mary the Ark, Mary had to be conceived without sin. For Protestants to argue otherwise would be to say that God would let the finger of Satan touch His Son made flesh. This is incomprehensible.

1 Chron. 15 and 16 - these verses show the awesome reverence the Jews had for the Ark - veneration, vestments, songs, harps, lyres, cymbals, trumpets.

Luke 1:39 / 2 Sam. 6:2 - Luke's conspicuous comparison's between Mary and the Ark described by Samuel underscores the reality of Mary as the undefiled and immaculate Ark of the New Covenant. In these verses, Mary (the Ark) arose and went / David arose and went to the Ark. There is a clear parallel between the Ark of the Old and the Ark of the New Covenant.

Luke 1:41 / 2 Sam. 6:16 - John the Baptist / King David leap for joy before Mary / Ark. So should we leap for joy before Mary the immaculate Ark of the Word made flesh.

Luke 1:43 / 2 Sam. 6:9 - How can the Mother / Ark of the Lord come to me? It is a holy privilege. Our Mother wants to come to us and lead us to Jesus.

Luke 1:56 / 2 Sam. 6:11 and 1 Chron. 13:14 - Mary / the Ark remained in the house for about three months.

Rev 11:19 - at this point in history, the Ark of the Old Covenant was not seen for six centuries (see 2 Macc. 2:7), and now it is finally seen in heaven. The Jewish people would have been absolutely amazed at this. However, John immediately passes over this fact and describes the "woman" clothed with the sun in Rev. 12:1. John is emphasizing that Mary is the Ark of the New Covenant and who, like the Old ark, is now worthy of veneration and praise. Also remember that Rev. 11:19 and Rev. 12:1 are tied together because there was no chapter and verse at the time these texts were written.

Rev 12:1 - the "woman" that John is describing is Mary, the Ark of the New Covenant, with the moon under her feet, and on her head a crown of twelve stars. Just as the moon reflects the light of the sun, so Mary, with the moon under her feet, reflects the glory of the Sun of Justice, Jesus Christ.

Rev. 12:17 - this verse tells us that Mary's offspring are those who keep God's commandments and bear testimony to Jesus. This demonstrates, as Catholics have always believed, that Mary is the Mother of all Christians.

Rev. 12:2 - Some Protestants argue that, because the woman had birth pangs, she was a woman with sin. However, Revelation is apocalyptic literature unique to the 1st century. It contains varied symbolism and multiple meanings of the woman (Mary, the Church and Israel). The birth pangs describe both the birth of the Church and Mary's offspring being formed in Christ. Mary had no birth pangs in delivering her only Son Jesus.

Isaiah 66:7 - for example, we see Isaiah prophesying that before she (Mary) was in labor she gave birth; before her pain came upon her she was delivered of a son (Jesus). This is a Marian prophecy of the virgin birth of Jesus Christ.

Gal 4:19 - Paul also describes his pain as birth pangs in forming the disciples in Christ. Birth pangs describe formation in Christ.

Rom. 8:22 - also, Paul says the whole creation has been groaning in travail before the coming of Christ. We are all undergoing birth pangs because we are being reborn into Jesus Christ.

Jer. 13:21 - Jeremiah describes the birth pangs of Israel, like a woman in travail. Birth pangs are usually used metaphorically in the Scriptures.

Hos. 13:12-13 - Ephraim is also described as travailing in childbirth for his sins. Again, birth pangs are used metaphorically.

Micah 4:9-10 - Micah also describes Jerusalem as being seized by birth pangs like a woman in travail.

Rev. 12:13-16 - in these verses, we see that the devil still seeks to destroy the woman even after the Savior is born. This proves Mary is a danger to satan, even after the birth of Christ. This is because God has given her the power to intercede for us, and we should invoke her assistance in our spiritual lives.

2007-12-05 04:50:03 · answer #4 · answered by Daver 7 · 0 0

Elisabeth was filled with the Holy Spirit.But only Mary was impregnated by the Holy Spirit

2007-12-04 19:45:54 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 3 0

the immaculate conception is, according to roman catholic dogma, the conception of mary without any stain of original sin, in her mother's womb: the dogma thus says that, from the 1st moment of her existence, she was preserved by god from the lack of sanctifying grace that afflicts mankind, and that she was instead filled with divine grace. it is further believed that she lived a life completely free from sin. her immaculate conception in the womb of her mother, by normal sexual intercourse (christian tradition identifies her parents as sts. joachim and anne), should not be confused with the doctrine of the virginal conception of her son jesus.

a1: no, he's to be the front-runner, mary's to be the vessel
a2: word by word no, but the concept is there...

2007-12-04 19:50:36 · answer #6 · answered by lorenzo ruiz 3 · 1 1

It sounds as though you have no idea what you're asking about.

Try these two links for complete details:

http://www.ewtn.com/LIBRARY/PAPALDOC/P9INEFF.htm

http://www.ewtn.com/library/PAPALDOC/P12MUNIF.HTM

If you're still confused after studying these documents, along with all the citations at the end of each, get back to me with any questions.

2007-12-04 19:52:44 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

No use responding

2007-12-04 19:56:00 · answer #8 · answered by helenoftroy 2 · 1 0

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