For christians and jews alike who do not know this, or did you know?

Question

That in the original hebrew the word virgin which is "betula" is not found in Isaiah 7:14 but instead ha-alma which is young.

Which reads: Therefore the L-rd himself will give you a "sign" a [young woman] shall conceive and bare a son.
The purpose of this is to wake people up so that when mockers come you would know what to say or not say.
In this text of scripture the enfasis should be in the word "sign" why, because if anyone tells you that it is a sign that a young woman is going to give birth what is so unique about that?
And if a young woman being pregnant is not a sign why in the world put that phraze there in the 1st place, unless that phraze can still have it's uniqueness if it is a "uniquely" significant occurance that a young womans way of being inpregnated was without an earthly intervention but heavenly, for it is written that "G-d" himself will give you a sign.

Diane M.......then what you're revealing is that the truth has been comprimised from it's original to the translations by the translators.

Cathy..........Very good illustration on the matter, it is clearly implimented in Joel 1:8 the word "betula" which means virgin. How odd of a statement he makes here saying Lament like a virgin girded with sackloth for the husband of her youth. He just said she was a virgin how is she a virgin then, unless her husband did not fulfill his duty as a man you would think because ofcourse it is a logical outcome to her circumstance but I think it tells us much more about this text relation with messiah.

Tuberoot............we all know that those quotes you posted is what is written in the king james and all the rest of those other subtuigent books nevertheless, my quotes are from the hebrew itself, the original writtings.

Diane M........there is a diffrence from the word young woman then from the word virgin don't you think?

besides it is written you shall not add to or take away from the words of this law.

Douglawr.........although your understanding of the occurence is true that the sign is a virgin not young woman however in the original hebrew it is stated "ha'alma giveret" young woman, not "betula" for virgin. What I am doing here is trying to help people comprehend the play of words that some use to try and persuade you from the truth of the context of the message.

Ray.........I'm sorry you are an athiest and would like to apoligize for my spelling but I am sure my message is being understood.

Answer 1

From reading The Complete Jewish Bible, I agree with you that the word is properly translated "young woman." The sign from G-d is what is significant, not Miriam herself.

It's also true that culturally at that time, young unmarried women were expected to be virgins. Whether stated or not, you can extrapolate that Miriam was a virgin.

Answer 2

Yeah but Isaiah was translated from the Septuagint which used the word parthenos.

Also if Betulla means virgin (instead of almah) why was it used in Joel to say "priests will mourn like a (betulah)mourning the death of the husband of her youth"

lmah comes from a verb with the root letters (ayinlamed mem) that means "to be hidden or unknown." (to Know means have had sexual relations to be unknown means to not have IE virgin)

Answer 3

The word in Isaiah 7:14 was a common euphemism for "virgin" at the time of Christ. When the Hebrew scriptures were translated into Greek, for instance, the Greek word for virgin was used.

Edit: Ummm... no. I'm "revealing" that those who translated it into Koinoneia Greek two thousand years ago gave it the meaning that most people then gave it. Even Hebrew changes over time.

Answer 4

I see the need for those who do not want to believe that Jesus is the Lamb of God to use rhetoric to confuse the issue. I'll show you my source, can you show me yours?

Isaiah 7

7:14
"Therefore the Lord Himself will give you a sign: Behold, a virgin will be with child and bear a son, and she will call His name Immanuel.
http://bible.crosswalk.com/OnlineStudyBible/bible.cgi?new=1&word=Isaiah+7%3A14§ion=0&version=nsn&language=en

'virgin'
Strong's Number: 5959
`almah
Noun Feminine
Definition

1. virgin, young woman
1. of marriageable age
2. maid or newly married ++++ There is no instance where it can be proved that this word designates a young woman who is not a virgin. (TWOT)

http://bible.crosswalk.com/Lexicons/Hebrew/heb.cgi?number=05959&version=nas

It's an easy one.

Answer 5

"There is no instance where it can be proved that 'almâ designates a young woman who is not a virgin. The fact of virginity is obvious in Gen 24:43 where 'almâ is used of one who was being sought as a bride for Isaac." (R. Laird Harris, et al. Theological Wordbook of the Old Testament, p. 672.)

See also:

Luk 1:34 Then said Mary unto the angel, How shall this be, seeing I know not a man?

Answer 6

A young woman conceiving is no sign at all.

The correct translation is "virgin" and we know that to be the correct translation, because it did indeed come to pass.

Answer 7

My question is this, why only is this addressed to Jews and Christians. Seems more important to Muslims than Jews? Muslims believe in the Virgin Birth of Jesus and Perpetual Virginity of Maryam.

Answer 8

How did the LXX translate the word?

Answer 9

im an atheist and i knew this

and the word is emphasis not enfasis