Please use scripture if possible.
2007-12-04
16:58:41
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19 answers
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asked by
realchurchhistorian
4
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
Toadalay - Nope, try again.
2007-12-04
17:08:53 ·
update #1
Smarty Pants -- thanks for that one you are hilarious!
2007-12-04
17:09:47 ·
update #2
Here is a hint, look in the Gospel of Luke for a prophesy about the Christ.
2007-12-04
17:11:00 ·
update #3
Gatita - Smarty Pants was just being herself, and you have to admit, she was funny.
Second, with all respect, you are using logic and custom. Were there no other clear scriptures on the subject I would agree with you completely...but there are, so I do not agree with your conclusion. Hopefully someone on here will find the verses I am hinting about.
2007-12-04
17:32:40 ·
update #4
No. Jesus drank grape juice.
For Jesus to drink or make wine would have been a contradiction to Himself and His Word.
"New wine" is just grape juice--nothing more.
The Bible doesn't contradicts itself, religion contradicts the Bible.
"And no man putteth new wine into old bottles: else the new wine doth burst the bottles, and the wine is spilled, and the bottles will be marred: but new wine must be put into new bottles." Mark 2:22
"No man also having drunk old wine straightway desireth new: for he saith, The old is better." Luke 5:39
Because the new is grape juice.
2007-12-04 17:01:44
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Smarty Pants is wrong, 1 Corinthians 14:22 says: Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe.
Plus there is no 2 Corinthians 14:22, this book ends with the 13th chapter. There s no record that Jesus ever said this in either 1st or 2ns Corinthians because He had already ascended into heaven. These books were written by the apostle Paul to the church at Corinth. However, during the Passover seder it is the Jewish custom to drink 4 cups of wine during the meal. When Jesus and His disciples celebrated the last Supper and He lifted the cup it was probably wine because first and foremost Jesus Christ was a Jew and would have observed this custom. Matthew 26:17-29
gatita_63109
2007-12-04 17:21:10
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answer #2
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answered by gatita 7
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Only those who took the vow of a Nazarite did not drink wine. Ex. Sampson in the Old Testament and John the Baptist in the new.. There is no reference that says Jesus was. Do not confuse Nazarene (called that because of the name of the town where Jesus was raised) and Nazarite (one who has taken a special vow)
2007-12-04 17:18:23
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answer #3
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answered by the_buccaru 5
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Hello,
He did in the last supper and his first miracle was changing water into wine for the wedding guests.
A Roman proverb: Veritas in vino est - There is truth in wine.
Proverbs says take not much of it or you'll feel liKe your on the mast of a ship in a stormy sea and feel you had been bitten by a poison serpent the next day... sound like unfermented grape juice?
Question: Does "wine" in the Bible mean "grape juice"?
Answer: Prohibitionists object saying, "But how do you know that the original Hebrew and Greek words mean fermented wine? Certain historians say the wine used was nothing more than molasses – that this grape drink was nonintoxicating and the ordinary drink of people in Christ’s time."
"Here is more truth about this false idea of wine being grape juice!
There are thirteen original Hebrew and Greek words for "wine" in our English Bible. How can we know which one means fermented wine? To find the answer, do not go to Aristotle or Pliny, but go to the Bible itself. By comparing its usage, the scriptural meaning of wine can be defined.
One of the original Hebrew words for wine is "yayin." This word is first used in Genesis 9:21 where Noah "drank of the wine and was drunken." This wine caused drunkenness! Was it just grape juice or was it molasses?
In Genesis 14:18 we read of Melchizedek – Jesus Christ – who "brought forth bread and wine: and he was the priest of the most high God." God Himself here gave wine to Abraham. And again, the original Hebrew word was "yayin" which always means fermented wine. This same Hebrew word is used in Amos 9:14 speaking of the coming Millennium where the people will "plant vineyards, and drink the wine thereof." They will drink the same kind of wine that Noah drank and became drunk by overindulgence.
In the New Testament, one original Greek word for wine is oinos. Proof that it is alcoholic is given in the story of the good Samaritan. The Samaritan poured oil and wine on the man’s wounds (Luke 10:34), showing that the wine had enough alcoholic content to be used as an antiseptic. Would you pour grape juice or molasses on a wound?
The Greek word oinos is also used in John 2 where Jesus turned water into wine by a divine miracle. It is used in 1 Timothy 5:23, the command of Paul, "Drink no longer water, but use a little wine for thy stomach’s sake and thine often infirmities." This Greek word is also used in Ephesians 5:18, "And be not drunk with wine wherein is excess."
In ancient times it was impossible to preserve grape juice. Except for a short season the "fruit of the vine" was either made into a thick molasses or into wine. Check Hastings Bible Dictionary for the full proof."
Mike K
2007-12-04 17:39:55
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answer #4
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answered by Mike K 7
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You don't need scripture. All you need is history. Wine was THE drink of the time. Everyone drank it with meals, including Christ and the Apostles. Do you suppose He went to a wedding feast, supplied wine for everyone else to drink, yet didn't have any Himself? He spoke of drinking "the fruit of the vine", and that had one meaning - wine.
2007-12-04 17:03:59
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answer #5
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answered by PaulCyp 7
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I guess so -- thanks to other writers who correctly pointed out "drink of fruit of the vine" is referring to wine.
And wine was always an beverage containing alcohol.
You can use the link below to also search for keywords "drunk," "drunkard," "drink," etc.
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This is talking about John the Baptist, not Jesus.
2007-12-04 17:08:36
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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Probably at two times that we know of.
One of course would have been at the wedding when he made water into wine.
The other recorded time is at the time he instituted the new covenant and the covenant for a kingdom with his followers on the last passover here:
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Matthew 26:27, And having taken the cup, having expressed thanks, he gave to them, saying, All ye drink of it, 28for this is my blood of the new covenant, which is shed on behalf of many for remission of sins. (ACV)
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The fact that there was wine at the Passover would also somewhat tell us that this probably was a custom at every one of their Passovers that Jesus attended with his disciples.
The fact that Jesus changed water into wine shows us that he embraced the moderate use of spirits that the Bible teaches.
He wouldn't give a prohibited substance to others and thereby sin. Therefore it was not in his eyes prohibited but for common use.
2007-12-04 17:42:15
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answer #7
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answered by Fuzzy 7
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Sure, he admitted to it.
Matthew 11:19
The Son of Man came eating and drinking, and they say, 'Here is a glutton and a drunkard, a friend of tax collectors and "sinners." ' But wisdom is proved right by her actions."
He was saying that John the Baptist didn't come drinking, and they said bad things about him, then he said what I quoted him saying to prove his point.
Then again, Jesus said this:
Mark 14:25
"I tell you the truth, I will not drink again of the fruit of the vine until that day when I drink it anew in the kingdom of God."
and again in this:
Luke 22:18
"For I tell you I will not drink again of the fruit of the vine until the kingdom of God comes."
So Jesus drank wine.
Luke has a prophecy concerning John the Baptist in that he wouldn't drink wine. Where do you get that Luke had Jesus not drinking wine in a prophecy?
2007-12-04 17:05:47
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answer #8
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answered by Christian Sinner 7
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Assuming that Yeshua bin Yosef easily existed interior the time and places defined interior the hot testomony, then it can be quite complicated to have self belief that he did no longer. As a Jewish Rabbi, or whilst a consumer-friendly guy of the Jewish faith, he could have participated interior the Sedar, the Jewish supper of the Passover. the hot testomony describes his participation in one such meal as "the final supper."
2016-09-30 21:45:14
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answer #9
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answered by ? 4
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UpDated: for argument purpose only. See second part of answer please.
http://www.robertroberg.com/writings/wine.html
NO.
This is a typical case of misinterpretation and wrong translation.
Wine means juice from Grape or grape like fruits.
Todays versions of Bible is full of translation and misinterpretation blunders, which made it questionable.
Unfortunately today no original version or copy of Original Injeel available which revealed to Jesus ( pbuh).
Jesus esed to speak Aramaice.
See following for argument purpose only.
Matthew 11:16-19
"What can I say about the people that live today? What are they like? The people today are like children sitting in the market place. One group of children calls to the other group, 'We played flute music for you, but you did not dance; we sang a sad song, but you were not sad.' {Why do I say people are like that?} Because John came, and he did not eat {like other people} or drink wine. And people say, 'He has a demon inside him.' The Son of Man came eating {like other people} and drinking wine, and people say, 'Look at him! He eats too much and drinks too much wine. He is a friend of tax collectors and other bad people.' But wisdom is shown to be right by the things it does." (ERV)
http://www.robertroberg.com/writings/wine.html
2007-12-04 17:23:52
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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