Yes. He said to the thief who defended him, Today you will be with me in Paradise (Luke 23:43)
or
No. He said to Mary Magdelene two days later, I have not yet ascended to the Father (John 20:17)
which one is right
2007-12-04 00:49:22 · 25 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
http://www.geocities.com/soldiers_allah02/
2007-12-04 01:12:34 · update #1
Contradictions shall be the order of the day.
2007-12-04 00:53:41 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 2⤋
While on the cross Jesus talked about going to paradise. This paradise is not heaven. Jesus did not ascend to heaven until forty days after Easter. St. Luke was very careful when he chose his words. In the two accounts of the Ascension in Luke and in Acts the author, Luke, makes in very clear that Jesus ascended into heaven.
This is some, by no means all, of the Biblical support for the Catholic idea of purgatory. The thief went to purgatory. We do not know how long purgation lasts. You just cannot apply human measurement of time to the hereafter.
OK Protestants, go ahead with the thumbs down.
2007-12-04 02:02:36 · answer #2 · answered by Adoptive Father 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
The confusion is in the translation. Manuscripts have not got lots punctuation. some Bible have Jesus asserting I permit you recognize actually immediately, you would be with me in Paradise. So the Promise became into made that day, however the being in paradise became into later. Jesus ascended After his resurrection and appearances to his disciples. See Acts one million.
2016-10-10 05:25:36 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
BOTH
What happened was, Jesus told the thief he would be with him in paradise....since the thief actually believed that Jesus was the Son of God his sins were forgiven.....therefor on judgment day he will be in heaven....paradise
He told Mary he didn't ascend to the father yet because he had to let the people see him so they could give there testament to what they saw
2007-12-04 01:43:48 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
This appears to be a "set up" question, intended to find a "contradiction" in the Bible.
The answer is: both are right, and neither. And the reason one can say this is quite simple: contemporary Christian theology is not based on literal readings of the Bible. Everything must be critically interpreted and placed within a broad, evolving, context. In this case, there can be multiple interpretations of what should be understood as "heaven," "body," and even "today." The major movements away from literal readings began (at least) during the time of Galileo and continued through the development of hermeneutics in the 19th century. Sure, there are plenty of fundamentalists church-goers who profess to believe in the literalism, but you won't find many people with Ph.Ds in theology who accept it.
2007-12-04 01:14:08 · answer #5 · answered by geor2 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋
I guess when Jesus assured the thief of a paradise it means salvation. That the thief is already saved. It does not really mean that after he was pronounced dead, he goes to the Father right away. Scripture says that Jesus did spend days with his beloved disciples before ascending to heaven. Therefore, both quoted verses are correct.
2007-12-04 00:58:25 · answer #6 · answered by tjanewithasmile 1 · 0⤊ 3⤋
Even Jesus was unsure of the route he would take when he spoke to the thief he was being.... Jesus.. calming the fears of the man. yes the man was ascended to heaven upon his death as he believed that Jesus was his salvation. This is Salvation, being "born again"
Now Jesus on the other hand took another route. He descended to hell on the THIRD DAY he rose again from the dead and ascended to heaven, and sits with the father in heaven to judge the living and the dead.
"Descended into hell" does not refer to literally going down into the bowels of hell itself to be subject to the devil (which is the position of many heretical and charismatic preachers today). Rather, it is a poetic way of stating that Christ truly and assuredly died on the cross.
2007-12-04 01:03:07 · answer #7 · answered by Uncle Red 6 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Both is correct, When Jesus was crucified, he decended in the lower parts of the earth to preach unto those souls that was in prison, Because at that time Paridise was in the heart of the earth seperated by a great gulf between Paridise & hell, Jesus preached unto those souls that was in paridise which would be the saints in the OT, When Christ rose from the dead he brought with him those souls & reunited it with their bodies, That is why the bible says that when Christ rose from the dead That THE GRAVES were opened, what graves? Those of the OT saints. Now Jesus said that he has not yet accended unto his father, that is true, Because he walked a few days upon this earth before he was glorified & taken up.
2007-12-04 00:57:02 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
Jesus opened the gates of heaven,while He slept in the tomb and preached to the captives of Sheol. 40 days after the Resurrection He ascended into heaven.
He is God. He can do a lot more than three things at a time.
2007-12-04 00:56:30 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
Both are right. Jesus is God and God is in heaven so the theif who dies on the cross would descend into heaven and as such be with Jesus, however Jesus himself ascended two days later.
On a seperate note I'm an atheist and think it's a load of bullshit and most Christians will probably try and explain it away by saying what I just said above and telling you that you just have to have faith!
2007-12-04 00:54:21 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 3⤋
both -
being in Paradise did not mean being with the Father, although God is everywhere
the acension took place 40 days later from the Mount of Olives also known as Mt Olivet
when Jesus left the earth for the time being -
now all prophecy has been fulfilled for his return to claim his church
c ya
2007-12-04 00:53:41 · answer #11 · answered by tom4bucs 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋