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Is there a tradition in the Jewish religion were if they have gone through a divorse that they can not remarry? My friend and i hears a song on the radio and was curious if this was true?

2007-11-29 15:12:54 · 7 answers · asked by vcaring 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

what if one party is jewish and the other is christian does it still pretain to have to get a get

2007-11-29 15:23:06 · update #1

7 answers

Sigh- let me give you the ruling on this from the Talmud (Masechta Ketubos and Masechta Gittin).

A husband and wife can get divorced- to do so the husband gives the wife a bill of divorce (a "get" in hebrew) Until the woman is given the get she cannot be remarried or have any relations with another man- if she does it would be adultery. Intially the man could marry another woman/women since multiple wives are allowed. However, due to a cherem (rabbinical ban) published by Rabbeinu Gershom in the 10th century we no longer allow polygamy and the same rules regarding needing a get before there can be any sexual relations/marriages apply to a man and a woman.

Once the get is given, both arefree to marry others.

If they wish to remarry each other, they may do so only if they have not been married, or had sexual relations, with other people in between. If they have, they may never get remarried.

There is one case where once divorced, the couple cannot get remarried, even five seconds after the divorce. This is the case of when the man is a Kohen (priest- descendant of Aaron, the brother of Moses). A Kohen is forbidden to marry a divorcee and thus once he divorces his wife, he can never remarry her.

The issue of a divorce between a Jew and a non-Jew is not an issue in Orthodox Judaism- simply because such a marriage has no halachic (Jewish law) validity. Since it is not considered a marriage, they would only have been married outside of a shul and in a civil ceremony. Thus, anything that happens outside the shul is irrelevant and has no validity in the religious context- in this case the law of the land is the one followed. (What the more liberal movements such as Conservative, Reform, Reconstructionist etc do you would need to ask someone else)

Edit: A Get is only needed if there is a halachicly valid marriage- in other words, since their cannot be a halachicly valid marriage between a jew and a non-Jew there is no need for a Get since halachicly there is no marriage!

2007-11-29 22:51:12 · answer #1 · answered by allonyoav 7 · 2 0

No--In Judaism, we can divorce. It should always be a last resort, but it is allowed.

However, according to Jewish law, a woman can only remarry if her husband issued her something called a get (a writ of divorce) when they were divorced--otherwise, she cannot legally remarry.

However in today's day and age, it's rare to find that men will not issue their wives gets. There are often unpleasant consequences if they refuse.

Note that the get system is not really following in more liberal denominations, like Reform.

If one part is Jewish and the other another religion it wouldn't be a Jewish marriage in the first place--according to halacha (Jewish law) a marriage is only valid between two Jews. Otherwise it's an intermarriage, and practically no rabbis will preside over an intermarriage (definitely no Orthodox ones) so the question of a get wouldn't matter.

Peace

2007-11-29 15:20:07 · answer #2 · answered by LadySuri 7 · 3 0

No; they're still Jewish as far as we're concerned until such time as they decide to embrace a conflicting belief system. And even then, if they want to come BACK, they're still Jewish; nothing can ever change that. Tradition say that the child of a Jewish mother is Jewish unto the 10th generation, even if the intervening women follow other faiths completely. Case in point: In the eyes of Jewish law, a Jewish apostate is a Jew until death, and a wife who has been abandoned by the defector is not free to remarry until she receives a Jewish divorce (a "get") from him. The law was severely tested in the 11th century when a case was brought before Rashi (1040-1105) in which the brother of a man who had died childless had converted to Christianity. Was the widow still required to obtain a release from the broth-in-law in order to remarry as prescribed in Deuteronomy 25? Rashi answered that althought the brother-in-law is apostate, he does not lose any of the marital rights or obligations of a Jew. The widow therefore may not remarry unless the brother-in-law first releases her by subjecting himself to the chalitza ceremony. Rashi's ruling has become accepted as law and has been cited as the basis for requing ANY woman whose husband has become a Christian to receive a get from her apostate spouse before she can remarry.

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2016-04-14 05:09:53 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Of course, if it weren't true (and 50% of marriages end in divorce) there'd be a whole lot of single Jewish women out there... and there aren't

- a Jewish atheist

2007-11-29 15:21:56 · answer #4 · answered by I'm an Atheist 3 · 1 2

No. One of my friend's mom (a Jew) just remarried.

2007-12-01 14:06:03 · answer #5 · answered by grr 3 · 0 1

Yes it is true because the divorse person whom remarrys will be considered as adulterers, and so it the person's lover as well.

You shouldn't even be marry if you are a Christian, but people in America does it anyways.

2007-11-29 15:20:23 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1 3

by jewish law and religious belief.. no...

2007-11-29 15:22:12 · answer #7 · answered by the_silverfoxx 7 · 1 3

i dont know the answer but i am interested in finding out. Thanks

2007-11-29 15:17:41 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

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