if Jesus was allegedly sinless & perfected why did he get his sins washed away by baptism?

Question

according to the NT Jesus was baptized by John (the baptist) and the text clearly states that the purpose JTB's baptism ritual was to wash away sins. Mainstream (Paulian) Christians claim
JC was a divine being, perfect and sinless. So why did he get his sins washed away if he didn't have any? I think this is a rare instance in the Bible that shows the real historical Jesus, a normal human being., not the divine fictional construct that was invented by Paul of Tarsus and others of his Ilk. I suppose hypothetically the divine Jesus could have been faking it for some reason but that would show JC to be a poser and insincere , If not a hypocrite. It could also be a bit of NT fiction as there is certainly plenty of that in the NT. what do you think?

Answer 1

I think you are misapplying the purpose of the baptism of Jesus. Jesus was sinless, and baptism does not wash away the sin (1 Peter 3:21)
Jesus came to John to be baptized and John dissented and wanted to be baptized by John. "But John tried to deter him, saying, I need to be baptized by you, and do you come to me? Jesus replied, 'Let it be so now; it is proper for us to do this to fulfill all righteousness." Then John consented. (Matthew 3:14,15)
There are several reasons for this baptism
1. The first mentioned here, to fulfill all righteousness. The baptism indicated that he was consecrated to God and officially approved by him, as especially shown in the descent of the Holy Spirit. All God's righteous requirements for the Messiah were fully met in Jesus.
2. At Jesus' baptism John publicly announced the arrival of the Messiah and the inception of his ministry.
3. By his baptism Jesus completely identified himself with man's sin and failure (though he himself needed no repentance or cleansing from sin) becoming our substitute.
4. His baptism was an example to his followers.

Answer 2

I think Jesus was baptized as an outward representation of his holy nature. This was at the beginning of his ministry. He was setting an example for us.

Christians are encouraged to be baptized as a symbolic statement of their sins being washed away, but nowhere in the Bible does it say we are going to hell or not a believer if we are not baptized. But ,because we are asked to be baptized, Jesus did it ,too.

Jesus was man and God. He had to live out full requirements of being a man, even though he was God. He still had to go through all the experiences.

When I became a devoted Christian 5 years ago, I was restless about some things, but the Bible clearly states that God's ways are different than man's. I had to choose to step out on Faith and just believe. That was my choice to believe and have faith in the Word of God.

Answer 3

There is no Allegedly to it, he was and is the sinless Son of God. He became flesh so that he could die.You see as God he is eternal and can not die. But the Bible says that the wages of sin is death. In order to keep us from having to die for our sins he had to come to this earth and take a body of flesh so that, that body could die and pay our sin debt. But if that body had any sin then he would not have been dieing to pay our sin debt. He would have been dieing to try to pay his own sin debt.

Make no mistake he was the sinless substitute that God required as payment for sin. And the way that we can know that he was sinless is because he was resurrected. This is proof positive that God did in fact accept his son,s sacrifice.

Baptism does not cleanse you from anything. What it does,is show our obedience to God and symbolizes that we are buried and raised again with Christ and the life that we now live we live through him.

During this /Christmas season it does everyone well to remember what the prophet Isaiah wrote. Unto us a child is born.( He had to be born in order to die) Unto us a son is given. John3:16

Answer 4

The baptism of Jesus himself as performed by John must of necessity have had a meaning and purpose quite different from John’s baptism, as Jesus “committed no sin, nor was deception found in his mouth.” (1Pe 2:22) So he could not submit to an act symbolizing repentance. Undoubtedly it was for this reason that John objected to baptizing Jesus. But Jesus said: “Let it be, this time, for in that way it is suitable for us to carry out all that is righteous.”—Mt 3:13-15.

Luke states that Jesus was praying at the time of his baptism. (Lu 3:21) Further, the writer of the letter to the Hebrews says that when Jesus Christ came “into the world” (that is, not when he was born and could not read and say these words, but when he presented himself for baptism and began his ministry) he was saying, in accord with Psalm 40:6-8 (LXX): “Sacrifice and offering you did not want, but you prepared a body for me. . . . Look! I am come (in the roll of the book it is written about me) to do your will, O God.” (Heb 10:5-9) Jesus was by birth a member of the Jewish nation, which nation was in a national covenant with God, namely, the Law covenant. (Ex 19:5-8; Ga 4:4) Jesus, by reason of this fact, was therefore already in a covenant relationship with God when he thus presented himself to John for baptism. Jesus was there doing something more than what was required of him under the Law. He was presenting himself to his Father to do his Father’s “will” with reference to the offering of his own “prepared” body and with regard to doing away with animal sacrifices that were offered according to the Law. The apostle Paul comments: “By the said ‘will’ we have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all time.” (Heb 10:10) The Father’s will for Jesus also involved activity in connection with the Kingdom, and for this service too Jesus presented himself. (Lu 4:43; 17:20, 21) God accepted and acknowledged this presentation of his Son, anointing him with holy spirit and saying: “You are my Son, the beloved; I have approved you.”—Mr 1:9-11; Lu 3:21-23; Mt 3:13-17.

Answer 5

He was setting the example. Yes, He didn't need to be baptized. But, he also taught that a man must be baptized by water and the spirit in order to enter the Kingdom of God. So, he set the example by practicing what he was preaching. He was showing obedience to the laws that were made by God.

This shows our need to be baptized. If He, a sinless one, needed to be baptized to show obedience to His (and our) Father. Then how much more is our need - we who are sinful.

Answer 6

Jesus was a first century Jew who belonged to a sect that used baptize to wash away sin just like the high holy days do.Jesus was just a human being if he exsisted at all.

Answer 7

Sins are Not washed away by Baptism

Its an Outward showing of a good conscience towards God
Showing the death , buriel and resurrection of Christ

So Why wouldnt He who it was about, not show the example to be set....

Same example He set by washing the disciples feet....
and the Communion........

Jesus did ALL as an example to us...
to follow HIM
as HE IS !!!

To be Humble , A servant of all , and an example to All
of His righteousness not ours !!

And being emursed in water does not take sin away EVER !!

Answer 8

He didn't. Jesus' baptism by John was not about washing away of his sins. In fact when John saw him he said
“See, the Lamb of God that takes away the sin of the world! " - John 1:29.

Jesus baptism was to present himself to his father to do his will and to be annointed as the Messiah, which we saw when holy spirit decended upon him in the form of a dove.

Answer 9

For the same reason He undoubtedly offered sacrifice in the Temple every year. We know He went to Jerusalem at high holy days. He participated in all the ceremonies of the Jewish faith so no one could say He wasn't an observant Jew.

Answer 10

It was to signify the beginning of his mission, not for personal salvation, whereas other people were getting baptized for themselves. John actually told Jesus that Jesus should be the one baptizing him, which implied that Jesus wasn't like the other people who were being baptized.