2007-11-14 19:52:26 · 23 answers · asked by G.xi 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
no, i dont recall any doctor being there t notice her hyman wasnt broke, all another fairy tale, its one way of trying t explain t ure boyfriend that you never cheated on him.
2007-11-14 20:04:09 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
We are talking about " Immaculate Conception " here.
Human beings procreate sexually...........Exclusively.
Sea monkey's and various other creatures can reproduce asexually, however, Mammals do not. Can not.
All this blarney written by people and put into the Bible is just that, Blarney.
Anyone gullible enough or desperate enough to believe half the tosh written in " Holy Books " thousands of years ago of course are quite entitled to do so in this enlightened age. If it comforts them to believe that their personality doesn't wink out at the moment of death if they have faith, good luck to them, after all delusion seems real enough to those suffering from it.
If Mary existed and had a baby you could bet your last dollar that she was impregnated by a man, Joseph, a Roman soldier or whoever. Immaculate conception just isn't a possibility. Blind Faith or no.
2007-11-15 00:33:11 · answer #2 · answered by Pattythepunk 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Bible says that Joseph wanted to divorce Mary on learning that she was pregnant [ thinking she had relation with another man] But an angel told him what the situation was, and Joseph accepted that.
In those days, betrothal was as good as being married.
And the law said that immorality was punishable by being stoned to death.
2007-11-14 20:35:23 · answer #3 · answered by pugjw9896 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
For anyone who doubts the Bible's version of this, there will never be enough proof.
They have already made up their minds, and no level of proof will convince them.
Look at how every miracle gets explained away by those who can't consider the posibility that miracles happen.
Three witnesses are enough to convict you of murder. A million witnesses can't convince you that a miracle occured.
2007-11-16 09:32:09 · answer #4 · answered by james p 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If we are a believer of the Scriptures we should accept whatever was written as the proof. It is the God that CANNOT LIE (Titus 1:2) who made scriptures to be written as it was in Luke 1:27.
2007-11-14 20:03:25 · answer #5 · answered by BREAD 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Actually there is proof in God's Word; the Holy Bible.
Matthew 1:18-25 = "Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of Holy Ghost. Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a publick example, was minded to put her away privily." But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the LORD appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost. And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.
Now all this was done, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying, Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us. Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife: And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS."
2007-11-15 07:30:21 · answer #6 · answered by KNOWBIBLE 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes!
Mary had an intercourse with a Roman soldier named Cloelus before she married Joseph.They were both in love though at that time it was forbidden for Jews to relate with the Romans. They were meeting secretly.
2007-11-14 20:11:52 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Joseph wished to put her away privately, which was the custom in such cases, until the angel revealed to him the nature of her child.
2007-11-14 20:16:10 · answer #8 · answered by sympleesymple 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Try reading Matthew ch.1 :25 which clearly states "But he had no intercourse with her until she gave birth to a son;and he called his name Jesus"
2007-11-14 20:23:49 · answer #9 · answered by Purple triangle 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Personally, nobody is going to convince me that Henry VIII fathered Elizabeth I. In fact I won't believe anything unless somebody can travel back in time and collect some DNA for me.
2007-11-14 19:59:28 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
No proof at all that she ever existed, let alone that old excuse, was it old, or was she the first to use it? "It must have been a ghost Joseph"
2007-11-14 19:58:49 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋