Question for Jehovah Witnesses......?

Question

Before Me there was no God formed, Nor shall there be after Me. Isaiah 43:10

If there is no God formed before or after God then who is this verse talking about.

In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god. NLT

Did God say there would be (a god) formed after me or that there would not be a god formed after me?

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. John 1:1
Does this mean Jesus is really God?
just like Thomas thought in John 20:28
And Thomas answered and said to Him, “My Lord and my God!”

Answer 1

People who are sincere about this subject can look at this link:

http://groups.yahoo.com/group/JWquestions-and_answers/message/880


For John 20:28:
http://groups.yahoo.com/group/JWquestions_and_answers_archives/message/148


For John1:1:
http://groups.yahoo.com/group/JWquestions_and_answers_archives/message/149

Answer 2

Isaiah 43:10:

No man made Gods.

John 1:1:

Someone who is with someone is not them. Plus Jesus was exalted where Jehovah is already the Almighty God. – Phil 2:9, Gen 17:1 (Note: Says that God was the one who exalted him to a higher name, not himself who is suppose to be already and for all time a equal trinity member.)

John 20:28:

Thomas at first could not decide what Jesus was. He was the messiah, he was not the messiah, he was God, and he was not God. But further passages show Thomas figured out correctly that Jesus was the Son of God.

Jhn 20:31 "But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God"

Answer 3

Why do trinitarians always ignore context?

Isa 43: 8Bring out the people who are blind, even though they have eyes,
And the deaf, even though they have ears.
9All the nations have gathered together
So that the peoples may be assembled
Who among them can declare this
And proclaim to us the former things?
Let them present their witnesses that they may be justified,
Or let them hear and say, "It is true."
10"You are My witnesses," declares the LORD,
"And My servant whom I have chosen,
So that you may know and believe Me
And understand that I am He
Before Me there was no God formed,
And there will be none after Me.
11"I, even I, am the LORD,
And there is no savior besides Me.
12"It is I who have declared and saved and proclaimed,
And there was no strange god among you;
So you are My witnesses," declares the LORD,
"And I am God.
13"Even from eternity I am He,
And there is none who can deliver out of My hand;
I act and who can reverse it?"

LORD is a mistranslation of God's personal Name

So Isa 43 is saying "I am Jehovah / Yahweh, and I am God"

"I am Jehovah / Yahweh and there are no other Gods."

Context of John 1:1 and does it disagree with Isaiah 43?

Please notice the footnote of the NAB of John 1:1

[1] In the beginning: also the first words of the Old Testament (Genesis 1:1). Was: this verb is used three times with different meanings in this verse: existence, relationship, and predication. . . . With God: the Greek preposition here connotes communication with another. Was God: lack of a definite article with "God" in Greek signifies predication rather than identification.


(NOTE: predication means quality, thus Jesus has the qualities of God, and is not God (an identification)

Thus John is saying:

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word has the qualities of God.

Thus John 1:1 is harmony with Isaiah 43.

Thomas' comment.

What does it mean when Jesus used the same words to discribe 'his God'?

Rev 3:2, 14; John 20:17 Jesus said to her: “Stop clinging to me. For I have not yet ascended to the Father. But be on your way to my brothers and say to them, ‘I am ascending to my Father and YOUR Father and to my God and YOUR God.’”

So the God of Mary is also the God of Jesus.

.

Answer 4

The Answer lies In the Statement " In The Beginning was the Word.... Beginning of What?
Since we Read that God has No Beginning or End, it stands to Reason that One:
Jesus Had a Beginning.. as Mentioned above because we Know that the Word was Jesus.
We also Know that Since God Lives Forever, and Jesus Died.. Ergo, Jesus is Not God once again.
Nowhere In scripture do we read of the Holy Spirit sitting at the Left hand of God either.. that was a Bonus Thought for you...

Answer 5

For even if there are so-called gods, whether in heaven or on earth (as indeed there are many "gods" and many "lords"), yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for whom we live; and there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things came and through whom we live," (1 Cor. 8:5-6, NIV).

Please notice in 1 Cor 8:5-6 it states there is to us but ONE GOD, who? The Father, notice it doesn’t say nor include, The Son, The Holy Spirit.

Jehovah is called God of gods in Deut, so are you saying that these gods are all false or do not exist? Calling Jehovah, God of false gods is wrong, because you are making him like Satan. Just like King of kings, or Lord of lords, other lords and kings exist.

So how do we understand the term so–called gods, these gods are not the Creator, nor are the Almighty God. Although these gods (angels, human judges) are called “gods” they are not actually the True God, the Almighty, but those “gods” exist.

To understand Isa 43:10, you have to look at the context.
None of the idolatrous Gentile nations formed a god before Jehovah, because no one existed before Jehovah. Nor would they at a future time form any real, live god that was able to prophesy. (Isa. 46:9, 10) But that does not mean that Jehovah never caused to exist anyone who is properly referred to as a god. (Ps. 82:1, 6; John 1:1, NW)

There is no other Almighty God, it is only Jehovah. That’s why Deut 6:4 states “Listen, O Israel: Jehovah our God is one Jehovah”

Answer 6

Moses and God's servants are also called God....See Exodus 4:16, 7:1, John 10:34, 35....it is an adjective type thing.

Also, God is not capitalized in Greek unless at the beginning of a sentence....it is not a proper name, etc.

So John 1:1 says "the god" and "god" with no a/an or the in front of it.

Jesus is always inferior and a subject to Jehovah. He gives up his 1,000 year rule and steps down even further. 1 Cor. 15:24-28.

Debbie

Answer 7

The last part of your question finishes it nicely. John 1:1 say the Word was God, and Thomas proclaimed the same in John 20: 28.

The Jehovah Witness bible is a mistranslation botched by five men at the JW headquarters who had zero theological training or expertise in the ancient languages and had absolutely no business attempting to translate the bible. Their version is simply a distorted book translated to fit their equally distorted doctrines.

Answer 8

the first time was talking about God almighty (Jehovah) and the second about the son of God almighty (Jesus) , the mighty god of Isaiah 9:6 but not the almighty of Revelation 1:8.

nobody deny that Jesus is god but of course he is not Jehovah the almighty God, remember all the sons of God are gods (Psalms 82:6) and all angels are sons of God (Job 1:6 and 2:1, 38:4-7)

Remember that God almighty is among gods (Psalms 82:1)

Jesus is the firstson of God almighty (Colossians 1:15-17)

that is why the bible describe him (Jesus) as a powerful angel in Revelation 10:1-3.

Answer 9

I have gotten a headache from seeing this question so many times tonight. Goodnight, I have class in a few hours.

Check out: www.watchtower.org

Answer 10

I have to hand it to you for refuting error, but you are throwing pearls before swine.