At the point in time when Mary concieved, knowledge was limited. She didn't 'consent' because she was being impregnated by GOD!! (Hence, the term "Immaculate Conception").
Not to be confused with the lack of 'consent' used in the "date-rape" issues in today's lingo. What gives?
2007-11-13 17:19:46 · 11 answers · asked by john_r 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Mary loved God and was happy to be the mother of Jesus.
2007-11-13 17:24:55 · answer #1 · answered by Sweet Suzy 777! 7 · 4⤊ 1⤋
You're wrong on a couple of issues.
2007-11-13 17:26:54
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answered by Anonymous
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Mary did consent, and if you read the book of Luke you would find that information there.
The term "Immaculate Conception" does NOT refer to Mary being impregnated by the Holy Spirit, but of Mary's OWN conception as a human being in *her mother's* womb -- formed without original sin (I don't personally believe this, I'm just telling you what the IC is).
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The "Immaculate Conception" doesn't refer to the virtual rape of Mary by God. According to the Bible, she was AFRAID when she was INFORMED (not asked) that she was being impregnated. Doesn't sound consensual to me.
2007-11-13 17:34:42 · answer #3 · answered by gelfling 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Actually, the "immaculate conception" was when Mary was conceived, according to Catholic doctrine. This, according to that theology, was so that she would be free of sin, and therefore unable to pass "original sin" down to her as-yet-to-be-born future child, Jesus.
The impregnation (??) that created Jesus was simply to give rise to the virgin birth, according to that same notion.
Not my personal belief, by the way, as I'm Jewish, but I've got a best friend who's Catholic, and she'd expect me to set the record straight ;-)
Edit: Why some doofus is giving me a thumbs-down when I'm just explaining the term is beyond me. Oh well - idiots abound.
2007-11-13 17:29:21 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 6⤊ 1⤋
Mary freaked out at the messenger, not the message. After the initial shock, she was all over that deal: "My soul proclaims the greatness of the Lord, and my spirit exalts in God my savior...the almighty God has done great things for me, and my name will be forever exalted."
2007-11-13 17:42:54 · answer #5 · answered by ceol3531 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Heck I hope roses were involved, a little umm pu$$y pay is only fair in this situation, I mean she's gonna have serious trials expalining her partner was a cloud of light and all and her family will revile her so I hope God did a good job of making her comfy...., after all zeus was dethroned after like the thousendth escapade with mortal women.
Who knows, maybe she was more...chaste by not liking it?
2007-11-13 17:44:24 · answer #6 · answered by lithuim 3 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Mary IS the Immaculate Conception.
(HER conception, not Jesus')
This title is used in the Catholic Church to explain how God could not be conceived within a vessel that was tainted with original sin. She had no original sin (that is, DISOBEDIENCE) from the time she was conceived, so that she might fulfill her destiny as the Mother to Our Lord.
2007-11-13 17:25:36 · answer #7 · answered by Somewhat Enlightened, the Parrot of Truth 7 · 3⤊ 4⤋
She wasn't the only woman ask by the Holy Spirit to carry God's Son, she was just the only one who said yes. Immaculate conception, yes, date rape, no!!!!
2007-11-13 17:29:21 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 6⤋
I hope he at least took her to dinner and a movie.
Would hate to think God is a cad...
2007-11-13 17:38:15 · answer #9 · answered by Bye for now... 5 · 2⤊ 1⤋
ever learning and never able to know the truth
2007-11-13 19:55:19 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋