At the time of the sale, we drew up a receipt which details the name of the person doing the selling, the name of the person who bought them, the date of the sale, as well as the description and costs of the goods. Both parties signed the receipt.
However I now need to prove legal ownership as the inland revenue are trying to seize the goods from the person who sold them to me. They claim the receipt is not legal proof that I now own them ? They are suggesting that the sale should have gone through a court ?
Any advice is appreciated.
2007-11-13
02:19:16
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2 answers
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asked by
gavman99
1
in
Business & Finance
➔ Taxes
➔ United Kingdom