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At the time of the sale, we drew up a receipt which details the name of the person doing the selling, the name of the person who bought them, the date of the sale, as well as the description and costs of the goods. Both parties signed the receipt.

However I now need to prove legal ownership as the inland revenue are trying to seize the goods from the person who sold them to me. They claim the receipt is not legal proof that I now own them ? They are suggesting that the sale should have gone through a court ?

Any advice is appreciated.

2007-11-13 02:19:16 · 2 answers · asked by gavman99 1 in Business & Finance Taxes United Kingdom

2 answers

Assuming the previous owner can prove legal title and you paid market value (or near enough) I can't see they have a leg to stand on.

Suggest you go see your local Citizens Advise Bureau just in case there is something funny going on (the IR may be basing their claim on 'Stolen Goods' law .. if the person who sold had no legal title to the goods then they can not pass any legal title onto you .. so if (for example) that person had agreed with IR to give up the goods in lieu of Tax, then title may have passed to IR the moment he put the phone down ..)

2007-11-14 19:15:06 · answer #1 · answered by Steve B 7 · 0 0

if that's the case, do not hand over the goods until you get your money back from the person who sold it to you.
Has the inland revenue said this to you personally? I can't see how a written receipt can be dismissed in this way, I would talk to the CAB if I were you.

2007-11-13 02:36:29 · answer #2 · answered by Smoochy Poochy 6 · 0 0

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