If you are caught sleeping with your sister-in-law, they would stone both of you to death. Kind of hard to have children after that.
This section of Leviticus is talking about inheritance rights, not conception. For a person to be "childless" under inheritance rules means that they are unable to legally pass their property on to any offspring they have. Legal term, not a physical person in this context.
If a child were to result from the relationship, they would have no inheritant rights. On your death, you would be treated as if you were "childless", and your property rather then going to your child would revert back to the head of the family (parent or oldest male relative). Your surviving family would be left homeless and penniless. Strong penalty in that day for committing adultery within your own family.
2007-11-13 01:25:52
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answer #1
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answered by dewcoons 7
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You are being disrespectful to your brother and your sister-in-law by speaking about her this way. The answer is "no," you can't. For one thing, your brother would beat the crap out of you if you did.
Leviticus is saying that IF a man takes his (living) brother's wife as his own, then the man and woman will be childless -- that was a curse in those days. It is trying to say to people that this was considered a very serious sin with serious consequences.
However if the brother were to die, then a man could father a child with the widow, and the child would be considered the dead brother's. That was to protect a widow from the scorn of being left childless , give her a child to care for her in her old age, and to protect the dead man's inheritance.
2007-11-13 01:16:12
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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What did you slip on a bar of soap and stick it in her?????
Nature is nature. You put it there, unless your tied or she is tied, Yes she will get pregnant. DUH!
Do not take one part without the other by the way. If God said you will be childless what could be the ramifications of how the child could be lost??
Think man - Think it all the way through before you go off half ******. Oops did I say that??
God Bless you and keep you out of trouble!
2007-11-13 01:29:57
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answer #3
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answered by xgarmstrong 3
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No.
I'll have to research that particular verse but the Bible speaks also of "brother-in-law" marriage, where if a man dies before having children with his wife, the man's brother will have a child with the wife to continue the family name.
**Edit
Excellently said ScotGirl.
I'm still searching for specifics about that verse... I probably wont turn up much, if anything, though.
2007-11-13 01:14:35
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answer #4
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answered by Xyleisha 5
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If a man died childless before his father's death and the division of the family property, his brother was to marry the widow. Their firstborn would be considered the dead brother's heir. Otherwise it was forbidden for a surviving brother to marry his dead brother's widow. It might seem that he was trying to gain the dead man's estate for himself. They shall be childless: The Hebrew implies that if the man already had heirs, none would survive him, and that this marriage would not produce others.
If your brother dies you can marry his widow. If he has a son already you do not get your brother's estate. It goes to his son or you and your new wife's son.
2007-11-13 01:18:53
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answer #5
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answered by rikirailrd 4
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They don't sound like the best people. Perhaps they removed the child from the household??
I wish our child protective agencies were so caring. Child Protection is in need of a complete overhaul.
2007-11-13 01:21:57
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answer #6
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answered by Ruth 7
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Your sin will find you out, you are playing with fire and you will get burnt, I don't think it's a good idea to interprete the Bible for our own selfish ends.
2007-11-13 01:25:19
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answer #7
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answered by Binahl 2
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The Bible sometimes tells lies.
At other times the mistake is made out of genuine ignorance.
2007-11-13 01:36:38
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answer #8
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answered by insincere 5
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You're quite certain it doesn't mean that the children shall be legally deemed his brother's, regardless of the biology?
2007-11-13 01:15:15
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answer #9
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answered by Hoosier Daddy 5
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particular its available, adult men have erections whilst they're asleep-sometines I only awaken and hop on, and whether he doesnt attain an entire climax, the pre-*** juices are sufficient to fill a pram !!
2016-09-29 03:48:44
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answer #10
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answered by arruda 4
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