Do the Church Fathers (1st-4th Century) teach anything except pray to God?

Question

Did they pray to saints? Please direct to specific examples in the ancient texts. Thank you.

Answer 1

During the time period that you have mention, we didn't have a complete Bible. We had all of the OT, we just didn't have all of the NT. The Book of Acts will help on this as well. However, back then, speaking in tongues was acceptable.

Did they pray to the Saints? No. I don't know why they would. However, the catholic church is another story. Mama is the reason we have "'St'. Patrick's Day"

The catholic church is not the "early Christian church". It's not even Christian. Read the first and second book of Corinthians. Corinthian church is one of the first.

The closet the vatican comes to any church in the Bible would be the one in Laodiceans church in Revelation 3 or, of course, Revelation 17 where God calls the vatican by name "MYSTERY, BABYLON THE GREAT, THE MOTHER OF HARLOTS AND ABOMINATIONS OF THE EARTH."

Then the Bible goes on to explain why "...the woman drunken with the blood of the saints, and with the blood of the martyrs of Jesus:"

Answer 2

All you have to do is read your Bible to know that the 1st. century Church, did not pray to any one other than God the Father through Jesus the Christ. The Bible tells you there is only one mediator between God and man, and that is the Son of God, Jesus the Christ. Your Bible is the most ancient of all text, and there is more manuscripts to back it up than any other ancient text in the world." When in doubt, read the instructions."

Answer 3

Greetings,

Yes they teach that there is a devil, and a hell. Also, that a church is a place to go to and ask for a Savior. Church is for sinners!

Answer 4

Nope. I don't think Augustine did either.

Answer 5

Here you go:

http://www.scripturecatholic.com/saints.html#tradition-I

http://www.freerepublic.com/focus/f-religion/1781591/posts