mary was born without the stain of original sin does that contradict romans 3?

Answer 1

Romans 3, verse 10 says, "...as it is written: 'None is righteous, no, not one.'" Yet, James 5:16 says that the prayer of a righteous man availeth much. If absolutely no one is righteous, then who is James talking about? Luke chapter 1 says that Elizabeth and Zechariah were righteous before God. If absolutely no one is righteous, then how can that be? Is Scripture contradicting itself? No, the folks who interpret Romans as saying absolutely, without exception, no one is righteous, are misinterpreting that passage. They are failing to realize that the key to understanding Romans 3:10 is the phrase, "it is written."

Here in Romans, Paul is quoting from the O.T., Psalm 14 to be exact. In Psalm 14 it says, "The fool says in his heart, 'There is no God. They are corrupt...there is none that does good.'" But then that same psalm goes on to talk about the "righteous." Well, if none has done good, who are these righteous the psalm is talking about? Obviously, when the psalmist says that none has done good, he is talking about the fools who say there is no God. He is not talking about absolutely everyone.

Just so Paul when he quotes from this psalm. Paul is not saying absolutely no one is righteous, if he was, then how do you explain all the Old and New Testament passages that refer to the righteous? In Romans 3:11 it says that no one seeks for God. Does that mean that absolutely no one is seeking God? No, to interpret it that way would be ludicrous!

Just so verse 23 which says that "all have sinned". Babies haven't sinned, have they? Little children haven't sinned, have they? No! This is not an absolute. There are exceptions. What about John the Baptist? Did he sin? Scripture says that he was filled with the Holy Spirit even from his mother's womb. Can someone who is filled with the Holy Spirit his entire life ever sin? It's something to think about.

So, it is perfectly legitimate to say that these passages from Romans, when interpreted in context, in no way conflict with the Church's teaching on Mary being without sin.

Answer 2

Yes, It contradicts many parts of the Bible. First off, original sin is not Biblical. It is not found in scripture and in fact, the Bible says that we each sin when we ourselves fall away, James 1:13-15. Mary did not have original sin, but the part is did Mary live with sinning? No, your Romans' 3 passage contradicts that. If she was sinless, then she would have no need for Jesus' salvation. Mary would also have been able to have sacrificed herself for all of mankind as our sacrifice as mentioned in Hebrews. The concept of a sinless Mary does not follow the Bible.

Answer 3

Mary was an ordinary woman who listened to and obeyed a a supernatural God. The Bible tells us "all have sinned and come short of the glory of God" So Mary was Just because another 'sinner' albeit a pope makes a decree saying that Mary was born without sin does not make it so. Only God can declare mankind sin-free. The Pope is not God and never will be.
The one thing most catholic theologians fail to understand is that the sin nature is passed down in the blood line... Adam sinned, and therefore all those who came from his blood line also become sinners. It was a blood sacrifice that was required for cleansing from sin. God set that up as a means of cleansing for the Israelites in the wilderness and that method continued until the death of Christ when the veil in the temple was torn from the top to the bottom and full access into the presence of God was now available for all through the blood sacrifice Jesus offered.
We know today that the life is in the blood, and that the Father is they key to the blood line, hence paternity tests. Jesus was unique in that no earthly father passed down the sinful bloodline to him. Almighty God overshadowed Mary and she conceived the Christ child. His bloodline, is perfect and hence Christ is sinless. But Mary's father...he was just another ordinary man, a sinner...so she was born in sin just like everyone else.
I appreciate all the great resource you have provided for all to read. Great work! Togther we can educate this ignorant world.

Answer 4

I believe it does. Which is why I do not believe Mary was sinless. I know this offends Catholics and I really don't intend to. However I really am not sure why it is offensive to be a normal human. I believe Mary was saved by Jesus and is in Heaven. But I think this salvation most likely occurred after His resurrection.

Answer 5

Who said she was born without Original Sin?

Answer 6

No, it is because Jesus was (is) her savior that she is kept from sin. There is no time with God. Mary would have had to be kept from sin, for, sin can have nothing to do with God. If you look in the Old Testament, you see all of the exact specifications that God laid forth for the building of the Ark of the Covenant. If this container had to be made with exact specifications to hold the ten commandments, the staff of Aaron, and the manna, how much more so would Mary have to be free from sin to bear the Son of God? Why would the "New Eve" have sin again?

Answer 7

THE TWO TURTLEDOVES WAS FOR BURNT OFFERING AND SIN OFFERING


Mary was indeed born with original sin, ie the sin of Adam imputed unto her. How do we know?

We know she was conceived in sin (Ps51:5)
We know, as a sinner; she went to fulfill the Levitical Law after she gave birth to Jesus.

But Mary kept all these things, and pondered them in her heart. And the shepherds returned, glorifying and praising God for all the things that they had heard and seen, as it was told unto them. And when eight days were accomplished for the circumcising of the child, his name was called JESUS, which was so named of the angel before he was conceived in the womb. And when the days of her purification according to the law of Moses were accomplished, they brought him to Jerusalem, to present him to the Lord; (As it is written in the law of the Lord, Every male that openeth the womb shall be called holy to the Lord;). And to offer a sacrifice according to that which is said in the law of the Lord, A pair of turtledoves, or two young pigeons (Luke 2:18-24 KJV).

The pair of turtledoves or young pigeons offered proved two things:
1) Mary is from a poor family
2) she would have been a damned sinner, if not for the Saviour's blood to redeem her. One turtledove was for BURNT OFFERING while the other was for SIN OFFERING!! YES, sin offering.

We see Mary acknowledge her sins to keep the Levitical Law.
And the LORD spake unto Moses, saying, Speak unto the children of Israel, saying, If a woman have conceived seed, and born a man child: then she shall be unclean seven days; according to the days of the separation for her infirmity shall she be unclean. And in the eighth day the flesh of his foreskin shall be circumcised. And she shall then continue in the blood of her purifying three and thirty days; she shall touch no hallowed thing, nor come into the sanctuary, until the days of her purifying be fulfilled. But if she bear a maid child, then she shall be unclean two weeks, as in her separation: and she shall continue in the blood of her purifying threescore and six days. And when the days of her purifying are fulfilled, for a son, or for a daughter, she shall bring a lamb of the first year for a burnt offering, and a young pigeon, or a turtledove, for a sin offering, unto the door of the tabernacle of the congregation, unto the priest: Who shall offer it before the LORD, and make an atonement for her; and she shall be cleansed from the issue of her blood. This is the law for her that hath born a male or a female. And if she be not able to bring a lamb, then she shall bring two turtles, or two young pigeons; the one for the burnt offering, and the other for a sin offering: and the priest shall make an atonement for her, and she shall be clean.

That is why Mary rejoiced in the hope of salvation in her Saviour,
Luk 1:46 And Mary said, My soul doth magnify the Lord,
Luk 1:47 And my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Saviour.


Would it not be silly, an immaculate sinless person needing a Saviour??


fartehr K, where is it in the Bible that said God prevented Mary from going into the puddle?? the fact that Mary offer two turtledoves is because one was a SIN OFFERING!!!

.

Answer 8

She was FULL of sin, just like you and me! And yes, it is a contradiction.


Father K, Pull your head out! Wake up and realize you are a part of the BIGGEST cult ever to be on earth. Your cult has lead more people to hell than 2nd to none other than Satan himself!
WAKE UP AND REPENT>

Answer 9

No-there is NO SCRIPTURAL EVIDENCE that Mary was sinless. It says she was "favored".

Luke 1:28 (New International Version)
New International Version (NIV)
Copyright © 1973, 1978, 1984 by International Bible Society


28The angel went to her and said, "Greetings, you who are highly favored! The Lord is with you."

Answer 10

Rom. 3:23 - Some Protestants use this verse "all have sinned" in an attempt to prove that Mary was also with sin. But "all have sinned " only means that all are subject to original sin. Mary was spared from original sin by God, not herself. The popular analogy is God let us fall in the mud puddle, and cleaned us up afterward through baptism. In Mary's case, God did not let her enter the mud puddle.

Rom. 3:23 - "all have sinned" also refers only to those able to commit sin. This is not everyone. For example, infants, the retarded, and the senile cannot sin.

Rom. 3:23 - finally, "all have sinned," but Jesus must be an exception to this rule. This means that Mary can be an exception as well. Note that the Greek word for all is "pantes."

1 Cor. 15:22 - in Adam all ("pantes") have died, and in Christ all ("pantes") shall live. This proves that "all" does not mean "every single one." This is because not all have died (such as Enoch and Elijah who were taken up to heaven), and not all will go to heaven (because Jesus said so).

Rom. 5:12 - Paul says that death spread to all ("pantes") men. Again, this proves that "all" does not mean "every single one" because death did not spread to all men (as we have seen with Enoch and Elijah).

Rom. 5:19 - here Paul says "many (not all) were made sinners." Paul uses "polloi," not "pantes." Is Paul contradicting what he said in Rom. 3:23? Of course not. Paul means that all are subject to original sin, but not all reject God.

Rom. 3:10-11 - Protestants also use this verse to prove that all human beings are sinful and thus Mary must be sinful. But see Psalm 14 which is the basis of the verse.

Psalm 14 - this psalm does not teach that all humans are sinful. It only teaches that, among the wicked, all are sinful. The righteous continue to seek God.

Psalm 53:1-3 - "there is none that does good" expressly refers to those who have fallen away. Those who remain faithful do good, and Jesus calls such faithful people "good."

Luke 18:19 - Jesus says, "No one is good but God alone." But then in Matt. 12:35, Jesus also says "The good man out of his good treasure..." So Jesus says no one is good but God, and then calls another person good.

Rom. 9:11 - God distinguished between Jacob and Esau in the womb, before they sinned. Mary was also distinguished from the rest of humanity in the womb by being spared by God from original sin.

Luke 1:47 - Mary calls God her Savior. Some Protestants use this to denigrate Mary. Why? Of course God is Mary's Savior! She was freed from original sin in the womb (unlike us who are freed from sin outside of the womb), but needed a Savior as much as the rest of humanity.

Luke 1:48 - Mary calls herself lowly. But any creature is lowly compared to God. For example, in Matt. 11:29, even Jesus says He is lowly in heart. Lowliness is a sign of humility, which is the greatest virtue of holiness, because it allows us to empty ourselves and receive the grace of God to change our sinful lives.