Peter's name was Cepheus. Perhaps they were Anglicized when the bible was translated.
2007-11-11 11:56:05
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answer #1
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answered by 2ndchhapteracts 5
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They don't. The KJV names are not the original Hebrew names...they were translated from Hegrew to Greek to Latin:
We actually don't know their real names in Aramaic.
The 12 apostles are only mentioned in the New Testament, which was written in Greek. Also, Hebrew was not the spoken language of Judea at the time of Jesus; Aramaic was. Hebrew had become a 'dead' language used, somewhat as Latin is today, for religious texts.
So, we could try to take the names of the apostles from the Greek Gospels back into what they may have been in Aramaic, or even Hebrew, but there would still be questions about some possible alternatives.
Even the Gospels are unclear as to who the 12 apostles were. While Matthew, Mark and Luke have similar lists, John had some different names to the others, but did not mention all the apostles by name. Various theories have been put forward to explain the differences, but these are, in the end, only theories.
One apostle was referred to by both Greek and Aramaic: Thomas. We do know that 'Thomas' meant twin in Aramaic. The other name by which he was referred was 'Didymus', also Greek for twin. Thus, we do not know this apostle's real name in any language.
'Peter' and 'Cephas' are also Anglicised forms of the Greek and Aramaic names that Jesus gave Simon.
2007-11-11 11:58:22
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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You are demonstrating what is called a Eurocentric point of view. The europeans took the names from the middle east, not the other way around. In the last 2000 years we have changes the spelling some. David, Deborah, Mathew. Paul. Not european.
2007-11-11 11:57:28
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answer #3
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answered by zeroambition 3
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Oy! You really did NOT think this question out.
Are you referring to the apostle Hyde Fitgerald?
The apostles all had Hebrew or Greek names
When you go back to class next week, look up a teacher. They're the ones you have not been listening to very well.
2007-11-11 11:58:54
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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Europeans took the names from the Holy Bible.
2007-11-11 11:56:24
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answer #5
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answered by Horton Heard You! 4
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I think you have it backwords. If my chronolgy is correct, the apostles were around first, so the Europeans have names of the apostles' time.
2007-11-11 11:55:22
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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Because we read the Anglicized translation of the Bible.
Go to the original texts and the names are in Hebrew or Greek
2007-11-11 11:55:54
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answer #7
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answered by Molly 6
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Europeans make many such mistakes:
It's unfortunate Windsor castle was built so close to the airport.
(America sports Shiloh and Abilene as place-names, to name but two, but the bible had them *first*)
2007-11-11 11:58:48
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answer #8
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answered by Pedestal 42 7
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It's the other way around, Europeans have biblical names.
2007-11-11 11:55:04
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answer #9
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answered by ? 7
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The names were translated just as the words were translated.
2007-11-11 11:57:10
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answer #10
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answered by October 7
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