Mary, Completely Free From Sin. Really?

Question

I would like SOUND Biblical Teaching that provides support to prove that Mary was free of Original Sin and Actual Sin. I am not concerned with Roman Catholic Tradition. I am concerned with SOUND Biblical Teaching. I want Teaching from primary sources such as the Prophets, Jesus, His 12 Apostles, Paul, etc. I don't want information from secondary sources (Those that came many years later).

How does the Roman Catholic Church reconcile this teaching and belief with Romans 3:23, Hebrews 4:15, and 2 Corinthians 5:21?

How is it that the Catholic Church can teach that Mary was without Original Sin and Actual Sin when the Bible Clearly Teaches that ALL HAVE SINNED. Furthermore, Jesus is the ONLY one ever mentioned in the Word of God to be COMPLETELY WITHOUT SIN?

Be Blessed,
Bryan

Answer 1

Preach it. Catholocism is a cult.

Answer 2

Nowhere does the Catholic Church teach that Mary was completely without sin. However, you're trying to make original sin into the same thing as venial (minor) sins, and that's just not correct. They are two separate issues. This passage from Wikipedia explains it very well:

"Simply stated, Mary possessed sanctifying grace from the first instant of her existence and was free from the lack of grace caused by the 'original or first sin' at the beginning of human history."

The doctrine of the Immaculate Conception deals with her exemption from original sin -- the taint that is common to all humanity and passed through the parents to the succeeding generation. Because she was kept free from original sin from the moment of her birth, she was a pure and fitting vessel for Jesus to enter the world. This is reflected in the greeting of the angel Gabriel: "Hail, Mary, full of grace."

However, this does not imply that Mary was entirely without venial sin during her lifetime: thus, she could say, "My soul rejoices in God my Savior." She was also subject to the sorrows of being human -- illness, sorrow, and death.

The doctrine was not universally accepted by the Church until it was proclaimed by Pope Pius IX in December of 1854. Today, the Eastern Orthodox Church does not accept the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception.

As far as Biblical proof is concerned, we Roman Catholics don't accept the Protestant notion of "Sola Scriptura," which is itself an unbiblical concept.

Answer 3

I ain't a Catholic but i would like to answer your question. Romans 5:12 says sin entered into the world through Adam and on into the whole human race. So subsequently all mankind was sinful from then on. Also , Mary had offered a sin offering for purification/uncleaness 40 days after Jesus' birth (Luke 2:22-24). Hence , Mary inherited sin and imperfection from Adam

Answer 4

Actually, that last one (2 Cor 5:21) could be considered as evidence for that argument. If Christ knew no sin, even in the womb, doesn't that suggest that Mary was without sin, at least at that time?

Also, the Bible is NEVER squeamish about telling of people's sin, yet it is peculiarly silent regarding Mary's. If others can argue from 'must have been', I can most certainly argue out of silence!

Answer 5

No. Mary was a normal person just like you and me. She did sin before and after she gave birth to Jesus. What makes Mary special is that she was willing to listen to God and to obey Him. God uses ordinary people who will listen and do His will all the time. Another significant thing about Mary was that she was descended from King David. Prophets in the Old Testament times predicted that the Messiah would be of the Line of Jesse (that is also of David), so her ancestry is also significant. Mary does deserve respect just like any other great person of faith does. She does not deserve to be prayed to nor worshiped however. Praying to Mary does about as much good as praying to a painting or a statue or a piece of rock. She is in Paradise with all the other deceased believers, but she cannot do anything for us on our behalf. There is only one being worth praying to and that is God Himself. You can pray to God's Son Jesus (who is part of the Holy Trinity and therefore part of God anyway, but He has a special function in prayer as intercessor between us and God the Father) if you want to, but please, please don't pray to Mary. I know some really nice people who are Catholic so I don't have a problem with the actual people who practice Catholicism. I do have a problem with some of the doctrine of it though and one of the things that bothers me is the worship and praying to of Mary. The "official" position if you ask a Church leader is that Mary is not a diety, but if you talk with many Catholics and observe them praying (sometimes but not all the time) and look at the idols and paintings they have, it sure looks like Mary worship to me. The only completely sinless person who ever lived and ever will live is Jesus the Christ of Nazareth. It is not possible for anyone else to do it. If you meet or hear of anyone else claiming to be sinless that person is lying.

Answer 6

When the angel Gabriel called Mary, "Full of grace," Mary was already full of grace.

When the angel Gabriel said, "The Lord is with you," the Lord was already with her.

The Blessed Virgin Mary was in a state of grace before she says "yes" to the angel's question and before the Holy Spirit came upon her for a different purpose.

How can someone be in this state of grace before Jesus' sacrifice on the cross and have committed any sin?

When did Mary's state of grace begin?

The Bible is again silent on this question. Catholics believe this state of grace was with Mary since her Immaculate Conception. This means that Mary was conceived in the normal way (not like Jesus) but that she did not inherit original sin.

With the grace of God and without the effects of original Sin, we believe that Mary did not commit personal sin at any time during her life.

God prepared her for her later role as the mother of Jesus.

Catholics celebrate this miracle on December 8 as the Feast of the Immaculate Conception of the Blessed Virgin Mary.

For more information, see the Catechism of the Catholic Church, section 490 and following: http://www.nccbuscc.org/catechism/text/pt1sect2chpt2art3p2.htm#490

+ Apostolic Tradition +

I find it disturbing that you also seem to disregard the Bible teaching about Apostolic Tradition.

I have much more to tell you, but you cannot bear it now. But when he comes, the Spirit of truth, he will guide you to all truth. He will not speak on his own, but he will speak what he hears, and will declare to you the things that are coming. (John 16:12-13)

Therefore, brothers, stand firm and hold fast to the traditions that you were taught, either by an oral statement or by a letter of ours. (2 Thessalonians 2:15)

We instruct you, brothers, in the name of (our) Lord Jesus Christ,to shun any brother who conducts himself in a disorderly way and not according to the tradition they received from us. (2 Thessalonians 3:6)

I praise you because you remember me in everything and hold fast to the traditions, just as I handed them on to you. (1 Corinthians 11:2)

With love in Christ.

Answer 7

Luke 1 -- When the angel greets Mary, He calls her "fullness of grace" or "Mary, who has received the fullness of grace." (Check it out in Greek, please. And remember that Luke wrote in Greek; it's not a translation from Aramaic).

What does the "fullness of grace" mean? It means complete and total absolution from all sin via Christ, does it not? It doesn't mean "partial purity and partial sinfulness," does it? We Christians only receive a down-payment of Grace (2 Corinthians 1:22,5:5) a partial redemption while we are still locked in the flesh, so we keep on sinning (see Romans 7), but the Bible says Mary got the FULLNESS of Grace. Not a little, the whole she-bang! And she got this from Christ -- He is her Savior. It's not like Catholics think that Mary didn't need a Savior at all. We just think she got it at the beginning of her life instead of at the end of it, to equip her to bear the Christ.

The Bible does say that all have sinned, but Jesus is part of "all" -- does that mean that Jesus sinned? You and I both know better than that. You even cite Hebrews 4:15, which spells it out plainly that Jesus was tempted but never sinned. He could not have sinned, being Grace Himself.

The Catholic Church does not teach that Mary was without Original Sin, but that she was SAVED from Original sin, same as you or I will be, God willing. Do you somehow think that God is incapable of saving Mary from Original Sin at any time He wishes to do so? Do you think it's impossible for Him to have applied the Salvation wrought by Christ on the Cross to any person at any time? Do you think He is so limited? Catholics don't!


KJV Study above has an interesting premise -- that Mary sinned (witchcraft, even!) by coercing Jesus to turn water into wine. This must mean that KJV Study believes that humans have power over Christ Himself! How very, very odd...what lack of faith in Christ being God Incarnate!

Answer 8

Everyone who is in Christ and everyone who Christ is in, is free from sin. Every Christian knows that... baptism symbolizes our cleansing and our moment of recieving the Holy Spirit just as Jesus has recieved in the Jordan River through John the Baptist (to complete the humility and perfection of Jesus). Jesus knew that without humbling Himself as all other humans must, His divinity on earth was not complete and neither could any one else's be, not even Jesus mother. She too had to humble herself... she had to bow down and say YES to God.

Mary the mother of Jesus, just as any other saint, has humbled herself before God. Whether a person HAS to humble themselves or not, frankly does not matter. It is in the humbling that a person connects to God, His divinity and therefore His perfection.

Answer 9

"For all have sinned and fallen short of the Glory of God"...

Need more scripture??

I really love how the world tries to put Christianity and Catholicism in the same boat... Some of the things that Catholics believe are so completely unscriptural. I just don't get it. How about Matthew 23:9:

"And do not call anyone on earth 'father,' for you have one Father, and he is in heaven."

yeah I get a kick out of that one too...

Answer 10

The Immaculate conception

Answer 11

the doctrine of the immaculate conception had in fact stalled in its process of being incorporated into roman catholic teaching until our lady herself appeared to bernadette soubirous and told her that the teaching was true.

(you would know this if you were seriously looking for an answer to your question).

when god himself offers us a miracle we should take heed of it.

if we are believers.