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These East European Jews have killed off so many of the real semitic "brown Jews" because they are more closely related to Atila the Hun than to Abraham and Isaac.

Their leader will be the False Messiah (Antichrist) who will finish off the job.......

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2007-11-11 08:01:27 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Zionists used Radiation to poison 100,000 Sephardic Jewish Children

http://www.the7thfire.com/new_world_order/zionism/can_jews_do_harm_to_jews.htm

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2007-11-11 08:07:15 · update #1

7 answers

I used much of the following answer below in another such "question" that I doubt seriously is a genuine question but an attempt to rant about the Jewish converts among the Khazars in some kind of bizarre attempt to negate Jewishness based on their conversion. Your claims are bogus about the "real semitic brown Jews". There are Jews from all over the world, black, brown, yellow, white..all races. The Mizrahi from Arab lands comprise more than 50 percent of all Jews in Israel. Anyone who converts to Judaism is a real Jew. Anyway, the Khazar's were never a majority of the world's Jews anyway. It is why most Jews haven't even heard of them before some bizarre form of anti-semitic claims started.

In the early days of the spread of Christianity through Europe, it did so at the tip of the sword. The spread of Islam to many nations happened in the same manner. The story of the Khazars, a small nation state of Turkey, who converted to Judaism rather than to submit to the sword of Christendom, OR to the sword of the Islamic Caliphate nations it had defeated has been a thorn in the side of the anti-Semite for centuries. It was a small kingdom that refused to be overcome by forced conversions. This small group of Jewish converts were thus always demonized for having rejected the "offer".

The claims of the rant in this "question" are bogus. Actually, DNA evidence and history reveal that there were several migrations of Jews from the middle east through Europe.

A very large number came to Germany and Eastern Europe after fleeing the ghettos of Italy. After the plagues of the middle ages, Jewish communities in Italy fled the ghettos and went north. The word GHETTO was coined in Italy to refer to the sections of cities and towns where Jews were forced to live, with gates at each end that were closed at night.

Ever notice how closely at just how many Russian and Polish Jews LOOK like Italians? For that matter, many non Jewish Italians are often "mistaken" for being Jews by the anti-Semite who has this stereotypical image in his head. We even share many of the same rare genetic disorders and have the same gene markers. So, biology proves the written and oral history. Jews as a whole stopped being only "Semitic" once Jews spread across the globe. We never lost the Semitic Hebrew language of Torah, but we gained many customs and languages along the way when peoples of ALL the lands Jews have lived among have embraced the example of living as a light unto the nations.


While the Khazar royalty and part of the general population followed and converted to Judaism sometime in the 9th century and it was viewed as a slap in the face to the Christian armies and Arab Caliphates sweeping through that part of the world converting people at the tip of the sword...it seems bizarre to me that Jew haters would try to some how claim that Jews, even if they have ANY Khazar ancestry, are somehow less Jewish than any other convert. The children of the 9th century coverts to Judaism were born just as Jewish as Isaac and just as Jewish as King David.

What about Ruth, a Moabite..a member of a nation that is condemend IN the Tanakh to forever be forbidden to be a part of the kingdom of God. She converted to Judaism and was an ancestor of King David. Are these same anti-Semites going to claim that Ruth and all who descended from her ( including according to Christian dogma, Jesus ) were somehow not real Jews? Nonsense.

If you are concerned that I'm quoting Jewish sites or history, how about you try reading The Barbarian Conversion: From Paganism to Christianity by Oxford scholar and Christian, Richard Fletcher whose scholarly works have won the Wolfson Literarary History Award and the Los Angeles Times Book Award for History.

Chapter 9, Rival Monotheisms will enlighten you.

From the times of the Torah until today, anyone who comes to embrace the eternal covenant becomes a VERY REAL member of the nation of Israel and a real Jew.

If you are sincere in inquiry about this topic, the Jewish language web site below is GREAT! it shows that the slavic influence on Yiddish, while great was a latter influence than that of the romance languages ..as I said..the history of Yiddish DOES reflect the history of the European Jewish diaspora as well as the history of other Jewish languages! ( Ladino, Hebrew-Arabic, and others)

Somehow, somewhere, some anti-semite got the idea that if they could convince people that if all Jews were simply converts from some Turkish people who never had any roots in Israel that it would make any claims of Israel being the homeland of the covenant people Israel, illigetimate. They ignore the Jews who never left the middle east, or the Jews who spread over the rest of the known world and concentrate on the one small thorn in their side, a nation whose king chose the beliefs of Judaism and from among his people, many followed suit to join the rest of the covenant whose ancestry came from Israel. Once one becomes a part of the covenant, they are every bit as much a "child of Abraham" as any other. The Jews who had to flee Arab lands also comprise more than half the Jews of Israel, so claims that the Khazars, not even a majority of the Ashkenazi, are somehow not legitimately claiming the homeland of the Jews as their homeland is NONSENSE.

Islamic peoples are from many converted nations whose ancestry biologically certainly is not from Abraham through Ishmael genetically, and who questions their legitimacy as a child of Abraham? Not I.
Salaam, Shalom, Peace.

2007-11-11 09:14:56 · answer #1 · answered by ✡mama pajama✡ 7 · 4 0

Adding the letter "i" to the end of "Ashkenaz" to imply anything besides an intent on the part of the writer to acheive grammatical integrity within a sentence is a hijacking of language. Any implied additional significance deflates under scrutiny and only illustrates a misunderstanding of lingistics on the part of the person doing the hijacking.

I'll try to explain how far-fetched and fragile the connection implied in this question is:

"Ashkenaz" is a MEDIEVAL HEBREW (Semitic language) term referring to the so-called "Rhineland" (the Rhine is a river, OK?) in what is, today, called "Deutchland" in the German (Indo-European) language and "Germany" in the English language (also IE language).

The term "Nazi" is an acronym referring to a DEUTCHes/GERMAN term coined in the 20TH CENTURY for the political party (also formed during the 20TH CENTURY) known as "National[-]sozialistische deutsche Arbeiter-Partei" ("National[-]Socialist German Workers' Party" in English.)

The thought that affiliates of that 20th-century political group would have chosen an acronym with recognizable connotations in the Hebrew language is, of course, ridiculous; thus, I have no trouble with concluding that the rest of the statements in the question posted here are, similarly, in the realm of science fiction (at best).

2007-11-12 11:06:32 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Khazars are not Ashkenazi. If Ashkenazis are Khazars, they would look Chinese since Khazars are Turkish and Ashkenazis are Semites.

Most Israelis are Sephardic since the Muslim countries kicked most of them out.

2007-11-11 14:20:24 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Kenites(son of Cain) or tares, yep. Their leader is their father satan.

Mat 13:38 The field is the world; the good seed are the children of the kingdom; but the tares are the children of the wicked one;

Mat 13:39 The enemy that sowed them is the devil; the harvest is the end of the world; and the reapers are the angels.

And he is also the golden head Dan 2 of the "one world system Rev 13."

http://www.khazaria.com/khazar-diaspora.html

2007-11-11 08:11:00 · answer #4 · answered by Theophilus 5 · 2 3

You're an idiot.

DNA tests have proven that Ashkenazi Jews are middle-Eastern, not Turkic, in origin.

As for the rest of what you said, I have no idea what you're on about.

2007-11-11 08:04:12 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 7 2

You're nothing but an raving lunatic, seek help for your mental problems and stop bothering normal people with sick questions.

2007-11-11 09:56:16 · answer #6 · answered by neshama 5 · 4 1

Godwin's Law. You lose.

2007-11-11 08:07:28 · answer #7 · answered by Doc Occam 7 · 0 2

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