First of all there was NO VOWELS in the original language. Second the word GOD is NOWHERE IN THE BIBLE. Now the words Elohim, and other forms of EL,Jehovah, Yehveh, Adonia, I AM, LORD, and Jesus Christ is in the Bible. Last of all the Jews said Yehweh but it was always spelt YHVH. The context of the writings and oral tradition dictated the vowel sounds. Any body that understands the ancient Hebrew language will agree with me. What do you think?
2007-11-11 06:17:21 · 19 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Elohim is not accurately translated God. Elohim is accurately translated as "Strong ones".
2007-11-11 06:30:19 · update #1
Just to make it clear "Elohim" does not also mean tree...Tree in Hebrew is "ahalem".
2007-11-11 11:07:37 · update #2
YHWH and YHVH is the oldest name found on earth for G_D, even older than Sumerian before "annunaki".
Most in America think the name is GOD or LORD due to the bible but fail to realize YHWH or YHVH was removed in the early 1900's due to a fight between the American Baptists and the Jehovah Witnesses. I do believe the bible is clear about not changing it (revelation for one).
YHWH even states, to allow His name to become nothingness is an abomination. Using GOD or LORD is creating the abomination folks.
His name is so beautiful, its what music notes are, its what is meant by when He said He will make in His image, stack the tetragramanton, its the form of a man with a heart. He is so simple and loving.
I applaud you for knowing the truth.
2007-11-11 06:35:16 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
Well, based on YOUR logic, there were NONE of these words in the Bible - it was ALL Hebrew. No "heavens" and "earth" or "man" or "beast" or "flood" or "ark" - these words are NOWHERE IN THE BIBLE!
But, hey - if you are fluent in Hebrew, all the more power to you.
The rest of us will use some form of English translation, in which "Elohim" is accurately translated as "God", YHVH is spelled out (not translated) as "Jehovah", and "Mayim" is translated as "water", while "Ha'sh'mayim" is translated to "the heavens".
So, "B'raishish bara Elohim es ha'sh'mayim v'es ho'oretz" may be perfectly fine for YOU, but why do you criticize those who read "In the beginning, God created the heavens and the earth."???
You swallow a camel and strain at a gnat!
2007-11-11 14:24:33 · answer #2 · answered by no1home2day 7 · 3⤊ 1⤋
The whole Bible is a corruption of translations.
Hebrew to Coptic, Coptic to standard Greek, Greek to Latin, Latin to German, German to English...with so many people doing all that translating, there are bound to be screw ups.
You don't want me to get started on the grammar either. Just a minor shift in the inflection and order of a sentence can change an entire meaning of an entire passage. The next thing you know, a whole new generation of people are going to be worshiping Leeks because the Bible told them to.
2007-11-11 14:37:41 · answer #3 · answered by leprechaunwarrior22 2 · 3⤊ 0⤋
QUESTION. Two times in the bible the word trees is used in a particular fashion. Once when Christ healed a blind man then asked the blind man what he saw and the blind man said , " I see trees as men walking to and fro" . Another time in Genesis is when satan is called the "Tree" of the knowledge of Evil. I looked up those words "Tree" and I do believe they came back translated as Elohim .Doesn't that indicate that Elohim = angels or supernatural entity?
2007-11-11 16:17:43 · answer #4 · answered by swindled 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Well their are vowels in Hebrew even in the original, it is just that they were not written.
We are not sure how the The Tetragrammaton was said it could be Yehweh or Yahveh or something else.
2007-11-11 14:25:27 · answer #5 · answered by Gamla Joe 7 · 3⤊ 1⤋
So what you're saying is that your question should actually look something like this?
G_D? Wh_ d_ p__pl_ c_nt_n__ t_ sh_w th__r bl_t_nt _gn_r_nc_ _f th_ H_br_w l_ng__g_? F_rst _f _ll th_r_ w_s N_ V_W_LS _n th_ _r_g_n_l l_ng__g_. S_c_nd th_ w_rd G_D _s N_WH_R_ _N TH_ B_BL_. N_w th_ w_rds _l_h_m, _nd _th_r f_rms _f _L,J_h_v_h, __hv_h, _d_n__, _ _M, L_RD, _nd J_s_s Chr_st _s _n th_ B_bl_. L_st _f _ll th_ J_ws s__d Y_hw_h b_t _t w_s _lw_ys sp_lt YHVH. Th_ c_nt_xt _f th_ wr_t_ngs _nd _r_l tr_d_t__n d_ct_t_d th_ v_w_l s__nds. _n_ b_dy th_t _nd_rst_nds th_ _nc__nt H_br_w l_ng__g_ w_ll _gr__ w_th m_. Wh_t d_ y__ th_nk?
2007-11-11 14:32:09 · answer #6 · answered by greenpin 1 · 4⤊ 1⤋
Is this a real question? Are you asking why people intend to show their ignorance or are you asking why people are ignorant of the Hebrew language? I must admit, I know no Hebrew.
2007-11-11 14:22:05 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
Lot of the original words and meanings were misinterpreted or mistranslated in translation to English.
2007-11-11 14:21:59 · answer #8 · answered by worldneverchanges 7 · 2⤊ 1⤋
What is your question? And, Jew's spell G-d with no o because we don't throw g-d's name away, so it is written without the o.
Plus, we do say G-d, because we say Adonia is our God, and in the Shama, it translates to Listen, people of Israel Adonia is our God, Adonia is one.
2007-11-11 14:21:06 · answer #9 · answered by A 2 · 3⤊ 2⤋
What does it matter?
I haven't heard anyone struggling to make himself understood in Hebrew lately.
2007-11-11 14:23:00 · answer #10 · answered by annvictorblue 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋