I'd be pretty certain that I'd know which the feminists choose so that's why the 'and why' bit is there.
2007-11-11 05:29:48 · 17 answers · asked by Put_ya_mitts_up 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
PIn, you can't possibly proove that.
KJ had a mass of resources to devote to it that no-one has had since. Quite simply..... But the NIV uses a less archaic language.
2007-11-11 05:40:49 · update #1
Each has it's values and demerits.
2007-11-11 05:33:32 · answer #1 · answered by Tim 47 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Since you're so certain, do tell us.
I'm not a feminist, BTW, but I am an historian- so I know that King James ordered parts of the bible rewritten to suit him and his needs. Even had parts deleted. That's what became the KJV. Has nothing to do with rights - has to do with revisionism.
The NIV is closer to the original documents.
IMO, every version is faulty, because it is NOT the complete collection of works that were originally intended to be in this book. Plus the mistakes and omissions that happen at every copy - even today - make it equally faulty and strayed from the original messages.
EDIT- Heath - what if it is satan promoting the KJV as best book and people just believe it is god doing so?
LOL- look, a thumbs down for knowing history - how sad and pitiful and small minded of you!
2007-11-11 13:35:01 · answer #2 · answered by Cheese Fairy - Mummified 7 · 0⤊ 3⤋
KJV is the closest translation of God's word. NIV cuts verses out of the bible. See Acts 8:37, it's missing from the NIV, literally!
I want the whole truth so I stick with KJV.
What do feminists have to do with it?
2007-11-11 13:39:31 · answer #3 · answered by Carol 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I would say the NIV, but w/o you putting the different places they may differ I can't go to deep into an answer for you. The things that come to my mind are the alterations that King James had made to the Bible. I use both versions.
2007-11-11 13:36:48 · answer #4 · answered by Marie F 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I would recommend using several translations to get the most accurate sense of what the original writer was trying to say and that one of them be in modern English.
Translation into different languages and times means that definitions change. An example is love in Greek has 4 words with different meanings, different kinds of love. English has only one word. Seeing how different translations handled the verse in question helps to get the correct meaning.
2007-11-11 13:43:36 · answer #5 · answered by grnlow 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I have been brought up with both versions myself, however I have found that other versions have a tendency to "water down" the King James Version. Of course, it is a bit harder to read old English, granted.
The King James Version is the older traditional version, beautifully written.
No matter what the version though, if one reads the Bible with a prayerful attitude, what ever it is you are seeking out will be revealed to you.
2007-11-11 13:43:40 · answer #6 · answered by talondora 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Neither has a bigger authority. I actually cross reference back and forth between these two and then check what the word in question means in hebrew using the blue letter Bible site. Only the original texts are absolute. There is a lot lost in translation so there is no single ablsolute translation. http://www.blueletterbible.org/index.html
2007-11-11 13:40:24 · answer #7 · answered by linnea13 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
i like NKJV, and if i am not getting something I will occasionally go online and look it up in NIV. But NKJ is what I read and will always.
I'm not a feminist, so i dont know what they would choose. Which one is it?
2007-11-11 13:44:27 · answer #8 · answered by Princess Peabody 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The KJV has been around a long time,tried and tested
so I would hold with the KJV.
2007-11-11 13:39:02 · answer #9 · answered by elaine 30705 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I would go with the New International Version because it's a better translation.
2007-11-11 13:39:30 · answer #10 · answered by Chantal G 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Pardon?
2007-11-11 13:33:52 · answer #11 · answered by Wanna bite? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋