The girl I am dating told me she has HPV and it was found in a PAP Smear when she was 16. She told me it was not sexually transmitted because she had only had sex with one guy at the time and had used protection. I don't believe her. Is this possible?
2007-11-08 15:06:57 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Health ➔ Diseases & Conditions ➔ STDs
It only takes having sex ONE time to contract a STD.
Condoms are NOT 100% effective in preventing STDs, especially STDs that are spread by DIRECT skin to skin contact like HPV and genital herpes. A condom only covers a man's penis - not the entire genital area. So, even if the man wore a condom, just the rubbing back and forth of the genital skin during foreplay or sex is enough to spread HPV.
She more than likely got HPV from that ONE guy she had sex with (even if it was protected). I personally contracted HPV from the second guy I ever have sex with (and it was also protected sex).
Good luck and take care!
2007-11-08 18:00:31 · answer #1 · answered by Alli 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
HPV is transmitted via direct contact with an infected individual. While uncommon it "could" be transmitted via a person's hands, if he touched his active HPV (wart) and then touched her she could get it. Most likely her partner had an active HPV infection outside of the area covered by a condom and it was transmitted during sex. It is most definitely sexually transmitted though.
2007-11-08 15:32:05 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Jim and Andraya are right...... yes, it IS possible that she got it from him (given he was indeed her only partner) EVEN THOUGH he used a condom. As they already explained, it is not only transmitted by fluids as HIV, but also by warts. I had an ex who had several of those high above his penis, so there was no way they could have been covered by a condom. He went to see the doctor and fortunately they were not caused by HPV, he got them removed and problem solved.
2007-11-08 15:55:24 · answer #3 · answered by Lprod 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
don't believe her she didn't get that from thinking about sex. she had sex and that's how it was transmitted, and the only way it was transmitted. so she had been sexually active before that pap was done, if she hadn't there is no way it would've come back that way.
2007-11-08 15:15:19 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I really don't know, but if she has had sex even with condoms I would bet on it. Condoms aren't exactly all they say they are. A couple years ago the CDC listed everything that they don't help prevent which was everything except HIV and babies, and if they break they don't do that either. Perhaps it could have been a wart on they guys finger too
You should think about your future spouse in this case. The chances are it isn't her. If you give your wife warts, you can also give her cervical cancer and it can kill her. I would think of your future in this case
2007-11-08 15:11:48 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
HPV is sexually transmitted. Condoms aren't fullproof.
2007-11-08 15:10:54 · answer #6 · answered by Geo 2 · 1⤊ 2⤋
this is possible. HPV transmission is not fluid. even if condom is used, if a wart is uncovered and it touches you its possible to get it.
2007-11-08 15:11:21 · answer #7 · answered by jim m 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋