2007-10-30 09:11:01 · 19 answers · asked by the Kid From Long Island 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
No, it came form God's word.
God created man.
satan created queers.
2007-10-30 09:20:15 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 3⤋
No, different cultures have looked down on it, religion or not. Before Judaism was revealed the Hebrews followed the laws G-d gave to Noah which forbid male homosexuality but not female homosexuality.
2007-11-01 01:57:22 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, and supposedly their Deity Yahweh. But he is just a minor god in the scope of the TAO, and not a real force to be reckoned with. His Son, on the other hand, was very tolerant of homosexuals. In fact the idea of 13 guys traveling around Judea together, philosophizing and telling stories and camping out under the stars, sounds kinda Greek to me.
2007-10-31 01:24:24 · answer #3 · answered by SABU_HSG 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In a historical context, most of the nations existing at that time, Egypt, Persia, Canaan, Greece etc, did not consider homosexuality a sin. Moreover they UNDERSTOOD what homosexuality was.
The Jews understood homosexuality only as a particular form of sex between men and male prostitution related to temple rites. They did not even have a HEBREW WORD that literally translates as "homosexual" and lesbianism was completely overlooked in their culture.
The understanding of the "love relationship" between two people of the same sex was appreciated and explored fully in other cultures like Greece. They clearly separated the "love" from the sexual act itself. The Jews concentrated mostly on the act itself and its inconsistencies with Mosaic laws that prohibited and punished the wastage of "seed" as well as viewed the discharge of sex fluids as unclean. Read Leviticus in its entirety.
The term "sodomy" is not a biblical term found in ancient Hebrew, Greek or Aramaic. It was NOT coined by the Hebrews. It is a fairly recent expresssion developed by the Roman Catholic church in the 12th Century. You can thank St. Augustine for it.
They made up this term after wrongly interpretating the story in Genesis 19 about Sodom. And then started translating all passages dealing with male prostitution in this manner.
You should also know that recently Orthodox Jews have revised their position on homosexuality and finally separated the particular SEXUAL ACT from the RELATIONSHIP. LOVE and ORIENTATION aspects of it.
2007-10-30 09:23:49 · answer #4 · answered by pixie_pagan 4 · 2⤊ 1⤋
No! Regardless of how many open gay Jews there are today. Homosexuality was first exposed in Sodom, hence the term sodomy. In Genesis 13, here is 1 verse.
"Now the men of Sodom were wicked and were sinning greatly against the LORD".
Read it.
2007-10-30 09:15:42 · answer #5 · answered by K in Him 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋
it come from God.and to let you all know almost the whole world was bi at one time before God but that law done for the Jews.they where in to self satisfaction.and that's all that is
2007-10-30 10:22:13 · answer #6 · answered by happlymarriedinlove2 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes but it was called the sin of Sodomy back then, and God called this too the attention of the Jews.
2007-10-30 09:14:32 · answer #7 · answered by Sentinel 7 · 1⤊ 2⤋
nope from the 'infallible, literal WORD OF GOD'...
"If a man lies with a male as with a women, both of them shall be put to death for their abominable deed; they have forfeited their lives." (Leviticus 20:13 NAB)
2007-10-30 09:15:19 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
Well, it is certainly written in the old testament, which is also the Thora. In that sense, yes.
2007-10-30 09:16:08 · answer #9 · answered by Maria - Godmother II of the AM 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It came from God. And homsexuals will not inherit the Kingdom of God.
God does not make imperfect people.
2007-10-30 09:16:34 · answer #10 · answered by NJ 6 · 2⤊ 2⤋
Sin is not a man thing. Mans mind has no idea.
2007-10-30 09:15:15 · answer #11 · answered by God is love. 6 · 2⤊ 3⤋