What is interesting is that Jesus lived in a Greco-Roman influenced society and was probably surrounded by countless examples of homosexuality being tolerated.
It just didn't seem high on his list of priorities.
In fact, when Jesus did refer to Sodom in Mark 6:11, it was not even in reference to homosexuality but inhospitablity to the gospel.
Obviously, what he as well as prophets like Ezekiel, took from the story of Sodom was a COMPLETELY different thing to what the early RC church took from it.
2007-10-30 07:59:28
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answer #1
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answered by pixie_pagan 4
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It is technically true that Jesus did not specifically address homosexuality in the Gospel accounts; however, He did speak clearly about sexuality in general. Concerning marriage, Jesus stated, “At the beginning the Creator ‘made them male and female,’ and said, ‘For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh[.]’ So they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let no one separate” (Matthew 19:4–6). Here Jesus clearly referred to Adam and Eve and affirmed God’s intended design for marriage and sexuality.
For those who follow Jesus, sexual practices are limited. Rather than take a permissive view of sexual immorality and divorce, Jesus affirmed that people are either to be single and celibate or married and faithful to one spouse of the opposite gender. Jesus considered any other expression of sexuality sinful. This would include same-sex activity.
Also, are we to believe that any and every action is good unless Jesus specifically forbade it? The goal of the Gospels was not to give us a comprehensive list of sinful activities, and there are many obvious sins that are not found in the “red letter” section of the Bible. Kidnapping, for example. Jesus never specifically said that kidnapping was a sin, yet we know that stealing children is wrong. The point is that Jesus did not need to itemize sin, especially when the further revelation contained in the Epistles removes all doubt as to homosexuality’s sinfulness.
Scripture is clear that believers are to have nothing to do with sexual immorality: “Flee from sexual immorality. All other sins a person commits are outside the body, but whoever sins sexually, sins against their own body” (1 Corinthians 6:18). Sexual immorality, whether same-sex activity or otherwise, is a sin against a person’s own body.
It is important to note that sexual immorality, including same-sex activity, is listed alongside other sins in Scripture, indicating that God does not rank one sin as worse than another. While the consequences of some sins are greater than others, Scripture often simply lists sins side by side. For example, Jesus said, “Out of the heart come evil thoughts—murder, adultery, sexual immorality, theft, false testimony, slander” (Matthew 15:19–20; see also Romans 1:24–31).
The Bible teaches that followers of Jesus are to practice sexual purity, and that includes abstaining from same-sex activity. In addition, unbelievers who practice homosexuality stand in need of salvation just like any other unbeliever. Christians are called to pray for those who do not know Christ, to serve others in love, and to share the message of Jesus with all people, including those involved in homosexuality.
2015-04-16 00:25:56
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answer #2
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answered by The Lightning Strikes 7
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Christians do nothing but pick and choose which parts of the bible they wish to live by. Most of the time this is down to the parts they've heard because of course they haven't read it themselves. There are many elements of Christianity that don't even appear in the bible or any version of it! The best example being Gods experiment with a dinosaur populated Earth before he put humans here.
The only sin I can think of worse than homosexuality is being a christian, or a Muslim or Jew or a Mormon or a Scientologist or....ect.ect.ect...
2007-10-30 08:02:13
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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"He confirmed the OT." Well, then, in addition to stoning the homos, we should be stoning disobedient children and people who wear two kinds of fabric together.
"You should read Romans." Well, Romans was not written by Jesus and doesn't claim to represent the words of Jesus. There's dispute that it was even written by Paul, who, at any rate, on the evidence of the letters attributed to him, was a morbid sexual degenerate. It's rather unfortunate that all of Western sexual morality has been founded on the writings of such a "man."
I'm not saying that "Jesus" - or rather, the historic personage(s) upon whom the legendary accounts of the gospels were based - would've been pro-homosexuality. Probably not. I think the larger question is, who cares? We live in a secular society in which we aren't required to believe in "Christianity" or to follow its supposed mandates - thank God! (Even "Christians" ought to be glad of this, by the way, since no two "Christian" sects can agree with each other as to how the religion should be practiced.)
2007-10-30 08:00:10
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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Could be that John 21:25 could have also been written to relate to Jesus' teachings as much as it refers to the works He performed.
Perhaps the Holy Spirit, as it inspired the men who wrote the Bible, said enough about it so that there would be no misunderstanding about its sin.
The Bible writers didn't include anything about a multitutde of sins not directly addressed by Jesus. That doesn't make those sins non-existent.
2007-10-30 08:05:22
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answer #5
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answered by David 5
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Yours is what is called an argument through silence. It is an invalid form of logic.
Regardless, Paul was specifically called of Christ to perform the work of taking the gospel to the gentiles.
Your ad hominem against Paul is also an invalid form of proof.
The gospel has to do with turning to God. Those who turn to God abandon the lifestyle of sin they lived previously, and homosexuality is but one of many sinful lifestyles.
The old testament quotes God Himself declaring homosexuality to be an abomination. It is still so. Those who are homosexual have the option of repenting like anyone else. It just appears that few do or will, and that is their choice. We all have this choice to make, whether to turn to God or not.
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2007-10-30 08:04:50
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answer #6
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answered by Hogie 7
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I personally DO NOT dismiss Old Testament Laws. Some are not applied today, as they are fullfiled by Jesus and have no use. That doesn't mean they are disregarded. Do a study on WHY these laws, that some call ridicuulous, were needed and WHY they are no longer needed before conclusions are made!
It was already established in Old Testament that for a man to lay with a man like he would lay with a women was sinnful. Taking that into account, the rabbis of the 1st century generally included homosexuality within their condemnations of sexual immorality.
It is mentioned by Paul as well. Your wrong, Paul did not have a holier than thou personality, he struggled. Did you not read 2 Corithians 12:7-10?
In Matthew 15: 19-20 (KJV) Jesus is reported as saying:
“ For out of the heart proceed evil thoughts, murders, adulteries, fornications, thefts, false witness, blasphemies: These are the things which defile a man: but to eat with unwashen hands defileth not a man. ”
In Mark 7: 20-23 (KJV) it says:
“ And he said, That which cometh out of the man, that defileth the man. For from within, out of the heart of men, proceed evil thoughts, adulteries, fornications, murders, thefts, covetousness, wickedness, deceit, lasciviousness, an evil eye, blasphemy, pride, foolishness: All these evil things come from within, and defile the man.
Matthew 19 says this
3 The Pharisees also came unto him, tempting him, and saying unto him, Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause?
4 And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female,
5 And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh?
6 Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.
7 They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away?
8 He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.
9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
10 His disciples say unto him, If the case of the man be so with his wife, it is not good to marry.
11 But he said unto them, All men cannot receive this saying, save they to whom it is given.
12 For there are some eunuchs, which were so born from their mother's womb: and there are some eunuchs, which were made eunuchs of men: and there be eunuchs, which have made themselves eunuchs for the kingdom of heaven's sake. He that is able to receive it, let him receive it.
This is one example of Jesus commenting on marriage. Don't you think if it were okay, he would have said something to that effect? Jesus clearly says the joining of male and female in marriage. ALL other joining WITHOUT marriage would be adultry or fornication anyway, hence, still in an act of sin.
2007-10-30 08:15:24
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answer #7
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answered by Gardener for God(dmd) 7
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Certain christians still follow the "homosexuality is wrong" rule because they themselves find it icky. There's no legitimate reason for it, but they don't want to come out and admit that they are bigots. So they blame it on god.
2007-10-30 07:58:56
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answer #8
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answered by Nea 5
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Romans 1:26,27 That is why God gave them up to disgraceful sexual appetites, for both their females changed the natural use of themselves into one contrary to nature; 27 and likewise even the males left the natural use of the female and became violently inflamed in their lust toward one another, males with males, working what is obscene and receiving in themselves the full recompense, which was due for their error.
1Corinthians 6:9,10 What! Do YOU not know that unrighteous persons will not inherit God’s kingdom? Do not be misled. Neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor men kept for unnatural purposes, nor men who lie with men, 10 nor thieves, nor greedy persons, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners will inherit God’s kingdom.
1Timothy 1:8-10 Now we know that the Law is fine provided one handles it lawfully 9 in the knowledge of this fact, that law is promulgated, not for a righteous man, but for persons lawless and unruly, ungodly and sinners, lacking loving-kindness, and profane, murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, manslayers, 10 fornicators, men who lie with males, kidnappers, liars, false swearers, and whatever other thing is in opposition to the healthful teaching
Jude 7 So too Sod´om and Go·mor´rah and the cities about them, after they in the same manner as the foregoing ones had committed fornication excessively and gone out after flesh for unnatural use, are placed before [us] as a [warning] example by undergoing the judicial punishment of everlasting fire.
2 Peter 2: 6 and by reducing the cities Sod´om and Go·mor´rah to ashes he condemned them, setting a pattern for ungodly persons of things to come;”
2007-10-30 07:59:37
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answer #9
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answered by Just So 6
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He did not need to as it was already well known that sodomy was sinful among the Jews, changing the word from sodomy to homosexuality does not lessen the offense.
2007-10-30 07:58:16
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answer #10
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answered by Sentinel 7
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