John 8:6-8
6 They were using this question as a trap, in order to have a basis for accusing him. But Jesus bent down and started to write on the ground with his finger. 7 When they kept on questioning him, he straightened up and said to them, "If any one of you is without sin, let him be the first to throw a stone at her." 8 Again he stooped down and wrote on the ground.
2007-10-30 07:06:14
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answer #1
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answered by primoa1970 7
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A good place to search for scripture is www.biblegateway.com. You can put in keywords, do topical searches or just put in a particular passage. It searches quite a few translations, so you can see the same verse in the different traslations and compare them.
People were, actually, stoned to death in several passages of the Bible, because stoning was a standard punishment for specific crimes. As for the "eye for an eye" part, that's mentioned in the following places: Exodus 21:24, Leviticu 24:20, Deuteronomy 19:21 and Matthew 5:38. This law (and it is part of the Mosaic Law), is not saying that the people who stoned someone were at any fault, because they were fulfilling the law. A tip for looking up those verses I gave you: read the whole chapter to get the contex, don't just read the specific verse, it will make a lot more sense to you. Also, if you can, read the amplified translation; not only is it in plain english, but they throw in some explainations for some of the more confusing parts. I hope you do well on your paper!
2007-10-30 07:15:44
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answer #2
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answered by bainaashanti 6
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Are you talking about when Jesus stopped the people from stoning the adulteress? If so, that would be in Matthew but I can't quite remember where.
Anyway, Jesus said that he who had no guilt could throw the first stone. Then he bent down and wrote something in the sand with his finger but the Bible doesn't say what. Some theologians think that He was writing down the sins of the people who wanted to stone the woman.
The verse that specifically says, "You have heard it said, an eye for and eye, a tooth for a tooth..." is Matt. 5:38
Hope I helped!
2007-10-30 07:10:04
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answer #3
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answered by Bought*With*A*Price 2
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John 8:2-11
2007-10-30 07:06:20
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answer #4
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answered by Celtickarma 4
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John 3:16
2016-05-26 02:42:08
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answer #5
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answered by ? 3
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An eye for an eye is mentioned in Exodus 21:24,Leviticus 24:20,Deuteronomy 19:21
Jesus tells the crowd that he who is without sin first cast a stone at her in John 8:7.
I would suggest that you get yourself a Strong's concordance.It is an invaluable Biblical research and reference tool.
2007-10-30 07:15:43
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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The better verse to use would be the one where Jesus says He who is without sin be the first to cast a stone. Hold on and I'll get that verse....
John 8:7
2007-10-30 07:07:23
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answer #7
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answered by LJ4Bama 4
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greetings friend , that scripture is in Exodus 21:24. Its part of the civil law of judgements God told Moses to write in the Law of Moses. This law was so that justice would be served to the one in fault and produce peace between disputing neighbors. The reason why we do not not have to follow this is because its been changed by the brining in of a better covenant. The better covenant which is everlasting was establish in christ and better promises was made by God. In Matthew 5;38 after the beatitudes was given christ made refrence to it. He came to magnify the law and make it honorable, Isaiah 42:21not do it away(Matt.5:17-19) . It was not God's intention to have people go around puttings eyes out or knocking out teeth but that fairness and justice would be done. Now if we follow Jesus and we are in covenat with God threw him(Isaiah 42:6) we need to obey the spirit of the law with the changes made to the letter.(matthew 5:39-40 & hebrews 8:8-10 & 7:11-12) I hope this help you score high with anyother additional info given by others. God bless........ya prince.
2007-10-30 07:41:24
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answer #8
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answered by princecurtis7 2
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You know, one thing you might think about - God requires an "eye for an eye" (Duet. 19:21) or in other words the punishment should fit the crime, so then the question arises - Would God burn someone in a fiery place forever for anything? The Bible tells us that "God is a God of Justice", and "just are all his ways", (Duet. 32:4; Psalm 37:28) so would it be "just" for him to torture people for all eternity for something they did, no matter how bad? It doesn't make sense to me. Think about it.
2007-10-30 07:15:32
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answer #9
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answered by SisterCF 4
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Skim through the 4 Gospels. It's in those.
They were going to stone a woman "taken in adultery" but Jesus stopped them, asking them to look at themselves first.
He said: "Let he who is without sin cast the first stone" Nobody did throw a stone at her and they all went away. He told the woman to go and sin no more.
2007-10-30 07:09:51
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answer #10
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answered by StretfordEnder 7
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