I was reading in the Bible where it says if a girl goes into the city (a girl who is already engaged to be married), and she is molested there, or a guy has sex with her; then she must be executed, as well as the guy, "because she cried not."
Question: Was this rule decreed by God, or just by Moses?
Question: Was this rule actually enforced?
Replies from Bible scholars and others appreciated.
2007-10-30 04:47:28 · 11 answers · asked by Saint Nearly 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Deuteronomy 22:24
2007-10-30 04:47:47 · update #1
yes, victim blame is my favorite part of any religion...
2007-10-30 04:50:37 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 2⤋
The bible was laced with "Local Laws" of the land; not just the word of truth.
The language of the bible is symbolism, not literal and this is seen across the board within the bible.
My Best guess is that this is a "law" of a locality and Not the word of God or even Gods Janitor, Hank.
My guess is that consenual sex occured All The time in those days and it was illegal.
I also think that if they were caught and the girl was not yelling rape, it was deemed consensual and they were "executed"; or, is she was, she was yelling rape off the hook and he was not.
I also think it rare that it occured either way as there were always ways to workm it out, a fine to the system as corruption was alive and well then also.
2007-10-30 12:07:00 · answer #2 · answered by Adonai 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
this was just a law of the time because this girl is no longer pure so nobody would want her.
all women had to be virgins before marriage and were seen to be unclean if they had sex before hand or had been married before (the woman at the well that Jesus spoke to was seen as an outcast remember?)
this was just an example of the culture at the time, not a law made by Moses or God but some that was misconstrued at the time. People didn't understand back then how traumatic an event like this could be for a woman as they were meant to be seen and not heard.
women were the lowest form of people at that time, hence Jesus making a thing of inviting women to speak to him and the shock of the women when He did (again the example of the woman at the well could be used)
hHe wanted to portray them as equals so He let them in to His company and made it known. The 2 Mary's were first at Jesus' tomb in one of the gospels and the virgin Mary was the one who saw the gardener (Jesus).
women were regularly stoned to death in those days "let he who is without sin cast the first stone" that was directed at men who were about to stone a woman to death for such things.
God is merciful so why would he have enforced a law that meant a person suffered because they had been taken advantage of?
God sent His son Jesus to be the last sacrifice as an end to suffering and to forgive our sins. God was not a punishing God, but a forgiving God. Jesus was God incarnate (made human).
2007-10-30 11:59:30 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It was decreed by God, and it was enforced. Several damsels a year were stoned to death for having been molested. It was a sin to be molested.
They didn't have Hell in those days, so the next best thing was to stone you.
2007-10-30 14:00:30 · answer #4 · answered by 2.71828182845904 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Okay, if you keep reading ....22:25 But if a man find a betrothed damsel in the field, and the man force her, and lie with her: then the man only that lay with her shall die.
The verse you quoted ment she was willing to have sex but as you see in verse 25 this women was raped and then only the man had to be put to death....
Yes this rules was enforced, think about Mary M, they were going to stone her, but Jesus stopped it.
2007-10-30 11:52:46 · answer #5 · answered by Celtickarma 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
When Moses saw that His people could not follow the 10 laws of God, he took the ten and made ten x ten. The hundred laws of Moses were not directly from God.
2007-10-30 11:53:59 · answer #6 · answered by Premaholic 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If you read past that it says that if a man takes a damsel into the woods and lies with her and she cries but no one is there to hear he alone is to be killed not her. The passage you refer to means if a woman willingly lies with a man. The verses after that deal with rape and molestation. You have to read the entire thing.
2007-10-30 11:53:10 · answer #7 · answered by James Watkin 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
I have asked this question before myself and it all comes down to interpretation.Basically the fundies will tell you that it is nothing to do with rape its all about them committing adultery and hence under mosaic law they were stoned.Doesn't actually say that though.I guess god used to be a sadistic SOB then had a personality transplant around the time of the birth of jesus and suddenly forgave everyone for anything.
2007-10-30 11:54:24 · answer #8 · answered by Cotton Wool Ninja 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋
If she does not cry out for help, it is that she was a willing party to it, obviously not protesting.
If in the country, where none could hear, she could yell all she wanted with no effective help coming.
2007-10-30 11:56:00 · answer #9 · answered by Jed 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Thats garbage. I met a street woman that sold her body for money. I met her in church. She changed her l;ife around and I tell ya...she showed me some things that hurt my back.
2007-10-30 11:50:46 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
im not talking about religion because its the cause of 80% of all wars and makes no sense.....i think your question re-enforces my thought
2007-10-30 11:51:02 · answer #11 · answered by irishblueeyes 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋