Matt.27:46,50: "And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, "Eli, eli, lama sabachthani?" that is to say, "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?" ...Jesus, when he cried again with a loud voice, yielded up the ghost."
Luke23:46: "And when Jesus had cried with a loud voice, he said, "Father, unto thy hands I commend my spirit:" and having said thus, he gave up the ghost."
John19:30: "When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said, "It is finished:" and he bowed his head, and gave up the ghost."
2007-10-27 18:13:42 · 14 answers · asked by Shawn B 7 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Obviously, all three versions are inventions. Supposing for a moment that Jesus actually existed and was crucified, who would have been close enough to hear his final words? No-one, of course.
2007-10-27 18:20:40 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 2⤋
The first account in Matthew says that after Jesus asked God why he was forsaken, he cried AGAIN before yielding up the ghost. So the contradiction, if any, is with the second and third passages. Everyone knows that Luke and John are two different accounts of the same event. So not all words were recorded, only the ones which stuck out to the person recording it. So it's quite likely that Jesus said both of these things before he died. What makes you think that when John 19 says "and he bowed his head", it means he did this immediately?
2007-10-28 01:22:04 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
Two men were on a street corner and witnessed the same traffic accident. One gave an account to the police in vivid detail. The other talked in vague generalities. The police used the former's account and dismissed the latter's as unusable. Both men went their respective ways and told their accounts to family and friends. The first man's account appeared in the paper and court proceedings...those who knew the second man then charged him with lying and not being at the scene of the accident. They forgot that each person views things differently and takes notice of different things. Each person notes what is important to him or her, not what he or she thinks others will deem important. If the gospel writers agreed to the minutest of details you would be asking here why they plagiarized each other.
2007-10-28 01:42:15 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
in order to study scripture, you can't just read it like a novel... it needs to be read like poetry! studying every word and its meaning. to answer your question, you need to think like this.
In the first verse you list (Matthew), Jesus called out what is quoted, then --the verse says-- He "cried out again with a loud voice" then died. In this verse, it does *NOT* say what he said when he "cried out again"... it is possible that he said one of the quotes from the other two scriptures. In fact, if you look at the second verse you quote (from Luke), it seems to continue from the first, saying that Jesus "cried with a loud voice" (exactly as the first verse says), but in THIS verse, we are told what He said. Thus, I do not see why these two verses are contradictory to one another? Rather, I see them as complimentary.
To respond to the final verse you quote (from John), this verse does *NOT* say that the quote --"It is finished"-- was His last. It ONLY says that sometime after He had said that, He died. It does *NOT* say He did not say anything else before He died. See the difference?
In conclusion, the three verses you quote are NOT, in fact, contradictory, but --rather-- are three parts of the same story, as told by three different witnesses with three different perspectives. [Just as you and two friends would likely describe a movie you have all just seen *together* very differently if asked to write up a summary... you each would include different details and leave out others.]
2007-10-28 01:29:13 · answer #4 · answered by nashgirl21 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Back in the days of old, there were no verses and chapters in the Torah. Instead, to quote a psalm, one would say the beginning line of that paslm. So Jesus was in fact yelling "Psalms 22!".
2007-10-28 01:22:51 · answer #5 · answered by Skunk 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I'd LOVE to hear answers from Christians... in my Bible as Literature class, when we were learning about the four gospels, that always confused me too.
I don't really see a way out of the contradiction, but maybe someone else can provide the solution.
2007-10-28 01:18:27 · answer #6 · answered by Marj 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Order of events(edited): vinegar, it's finished, loud voice, commend spirit
2007-10-28 01:28:21 · answer #7 · answered by w2 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yep,... either it's the perfect word of god, or it's fiction.
And... as you point out... not perfect, so it's fiction.
All the other stuff is just pointless excuses to try and explain away the FACT that the bible is just a lot of nonsense that people TRY to say is true.
Give it up!!!
2007-10-28 01:30:16 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
I am not sure what difference it makes to know what were Jesus' last words.
His life was full of great words and actions. Why not focus on them? Why be crazy about what Jesus said at the end?
2007-10-28 01:19:41 · answer #9 · answered by skdonweb 4 · 0⤊ 3⤋
None of these are last word of Jesus because he never died just ascended to heavem. The first Mathews writing is very near to his words. He requested to God and God helped him and saved him the cruel hands of murderers and lifted him to heavens near him.
2007-10-28 01:31:03 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 3⤋