were there last names 2000 years ago?
2007-10-27 16:37:10 · 21 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Yeshua Ben Yosef. Or Yeshua Ben Nazareth Was his entire name (if he existed) Jesus was not his name, Jesus means 'Messiah'. It was a title given to him later.
2007-10-27 16:41:35 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 3⤋
No, there were no last names at the time of Jesus. That's why Jesus is often referred to as "Jesus of Nazareth" or "Jesus the carpenter." People in his day were known by what they did for a living or where they came from. As towns and cities grew bigger and people moved more, last names came into being---and most of them were taken from how they were know before, like those whose last names are "Carpenter," for example.
2007-10-27 23:42:53 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Ben Joseph as it is transliterated into English meaning "son of Joseph". Last name were either the title of the immediate father of the child or if there was a more prominent ancestor like King David a person might be called Ben David even though David was further back in their family line.
2007-10-27 23:39:57 · answer #3 · answered by Martin S 7 · 4⤊ 1⤋
Jesus Never Had A Last Name All Me Know Is That His Name Is Jesus Christ Or Jesus Christ Of Jesus Christ Of Nazareth
2007-10-27 23:50:14 · answer #4 · answered by myjesusisgood44 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't think the practice of using last names started until much later. You are usually known by your given name and the village or tribe from which you belong...
2007-10-27 23:42:28 · answer #5 · answered by Shh! Be vewy, vewy quiet 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
In the official language of the region by that time (that would be Latin) its "Iesus Nazarenus" meaning Jesus from Nazareth
In old Hebrew, his language, it would be Yeshua Ben Yoseph meaning Jesus son of Joseph
and for "Hello" girl Christ is from Latin "Cristus" that means crucified
2007-10-27 23:55:26 · answer #6 · answered by Mak_time 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
in Hebrew, Yeshua Ben Yosef would be 100% correct
(and an atheist was the first to post it)
go figure.
2007-10-27 23:47:19 · answer #7 · answered by Wire Tapped 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Being that Jesus was said to be the Son of God (his father), and NOT of the Jewish faith it would have been ;
"Yezua bin Allah Amen,"
as the faith he "taught" was of Egyptian origins (resurrection and eternal life) in the language of Aramaic.
2007-10-27 23:51:40 · answer #8 · answered by Theban 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
BenYoseph HaNazarite
2007-10-27 23:40:15 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 5⤊ 1⤋
I guess technically it would have been "legally recorded" as Jesus Bar Joseph (i.e., "Jesus, son of Joseph.) but that's only because very little of the world at the time of His birth recognized that His true Father is God.
2007-10-27 23:41:06 · answer #10 · answered by he_returns_soon 3 · 4⤊ 2⤋