The following says all have sinned. Not all but Mary, but all. If Mary did not sin then the verse below must be wrong. (Jesus is the obvious exception to this since He is God and thus cannot fall short of His own glory.)
Romans 3:23 For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;
2007-10-27 15:29:15 · 20 answers · asked by Bible warrior 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
The Cub - maybe you would like to just answer the question rather than provide a link. If Mary was sinless then this verse must be wrong.
2007-10-27 15:34:35 · update #1
Get a Grip - The Catholic church teaches that Mary was sinless.
2007-10-27 15:40:03 · update #2
Sparki77 appears to be saying that because one is saved they do not sin........that is absolutely not true. That would mean that ever single person who has accepted the Lord as their Savior is now sinless. hahahaha While I certain try, I can assure I am NOT sinless.
No doubt Mary was a special woman, and a Godly woman, but she was no way sinless. I have yet to see scripture stating otherwise.
God bless
2007-10-28 00:38:09 · answer #1 · answered by lovinghelpertojoe 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Bible nowhere describes Mary as anything but an ordinary human female whom God chose to be the mother of the Lord Jesus Christ. Mary was undoubtedly a godly woman (Luke 1:28). Mary was surely a wonderful wife and mother. Jesus definitely loved and cherished His mother (John 19:27). The Bible gives us no reason to believe that Mary was sinless. In fact, the Bible gives us every reason to believe that Jesus Christ is the only Person who was not “infected” by sin and never committed a sin (Ecclesiastes 7:20; Romans 3:23; 2 Corinthians 5:21; 1 Peter 2:22; 1 John 3:5).
2007-10-27 16:09:53 · answer #2 · answered by Freedom 7 · 2⤊ 2⤋
There are a few misconceptions about Mary in RCC:
1) She had no original sin;
2) She was sinless;
3) She had no children after Jesus (probably Catholic church thinks that sex is sin even in marriage, which is absurd).
With sin, even better example are her own words: "my Saviour", which means she needed one. But, they go around this words by saying that she was saved of sins before she sinned! How lovely!
But, even if we would to take all this things and believe in them, it still doesn't give Mary any role in our salvation.
2007-10-27 20:08:10 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Hold the phone, kids.
Catholics believe that Mary needed a Savior and needed Salvation. We just believe she got that Salvation upon her conception, at the beginning of her life, instead of at the end of it. We believe that Jesus did this for her because of the special role she would play in bringing Him to earth. You do all agree that Mary gave birth to Jesus, don't you?
Anyway, since God is eternal, and since nothing is impossible for Him, it's perfectly possible that He made sure Mary was saved at her conception, which explains the title that she was given in Luke 1:28. You do have to be able to read Greek to know and understand this, but the angel greets her with a title: "Hail, Mary, Who Has Received the Fullness of Grace." You will note, please that it is "received" as in "already has it" and "Fullness of Grace" -- not a downpayment, like the rest of us have (see Hebrews), but the full-fledged complete salvation.
Those of you who claim that the Bible says Mary sins, would you please cite the verses that describe Mary's sin? We know Peter's, we know Paul's, we know James' & John's, we know plenty of David's sins and pretty much everybody else's. So where is Mary's sin listed, if you are so certain she did sin?
And where is the record of her giving birth to a second child? Or even having sex with Joseph (please don't say the Bible wouldn't record it, because we do have other couple's sexual relations recorded in the Bible).
As for the RIDICULOUS complaint that Mary & Joseph didn't look in the temple right away, what do you think that Joseph turned the mini-van around and there were electric street lights so that they could have been searching the temple straight away? They traveled a full day and stopped for the night before realizing Jesus wasn't with the caravan. Then it was night, no light -- even if there had been a full-moon, they could not have had enough light to travel back. So the second day, they took the WHOLE DAY to get back to Jerusalem, and then again, no light. Nothing to be done until morning. On the third day, they find him. They probably searched every logical spot from wherever they stayed all on the way to the temple because it just makes sense to do that. And you want to accuse them of sinning in this??!?!?!? Get a clue and read up on the history of the Bible, please. It wasn't 21st century USA, you know.
2007-10-27 15:51:36 · answer #4 · answered by sparki777 7 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Yes, I've noticed some comments made here saying Mary was sinless.
That simply cannot be, not unless she was God, and she certainly was not.
Heck, if Mary was sinless and was then a God, Jesus was just wasting His time when he came here and suffered and died. Mary would have been enough, right?
I try to understand, but just don't get it.
2007-10-27 15:40:27 · answer #5 · answered by ? 6 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Mary DID sin, just like the rest of us.
She refers to God as her SAVIOR.....that being the case, why would someone without sin need one???
If Mary was perfect, why was she afraid when the Holy Spirit came to visit her? (Luke 1:29-30)
Psalm 51:5
Surely I was sinful at birth, sinful from the time my mother conceived me.
Proverbs 20:9
Who can say, "I have kept my heart pure; I am clean and without sin"?
1 Kings 8:46
"When they sin against you-for there is no one who does not sin..."
Romans 3: 9,10,23
What shall we conclude then? Are we any better? Not at all! We have already made the charge that Jews and Gentiles alike are all under sin.
As it is written: "There is no one righteous, not even one;
for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God,
Romans 5:12,18
Therefore, just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all men, because all sinned -
Consequently, just as the result of one trespass was condemnation for all men, so also the result of one act of righteousness was justification that brings life for all men.
1 John 1:8 If we claim to be without sin, we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us.
2007-10-27 15:37:16 · answer #6 · answered by lady_phoenix39 6 · 4⤊ 0⤋
Luke 1:27-28 just says Mary was a virgin and highly favored by God. It does not say she was sinless.
2007-10-27 15:40:34 · answer #7 · answered by 9_ladydi 5 · 2⤊ 1⤋
We don't read any thing that St Mary was sin so she not sinner
but even she not sinner she carry the original sin of Adam and she need the salvation .Luke1:46-47
And Mary said:
"My soul glorifies the Lord
And my spirit rejoices in God my Savior,
2007-10-27 16:36:02 · answer #8 · answered by Mosa A 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
So you say there is one exception for Jesus. Is there another exception for children below the age of reason? How can this scripture verse really mean ALL when there are exceptions? If there are two exception for Jesus and young children can there be another exception for a woman called by the Angel Gabriel 'full of grace"?
http://www.catholic.com/library/immaculate_conception_and_assum.asp
I know, I know, I will get a bunch of thumbs down for providing a link.
2007-10-27 15:52:51 · answer #9 · answered by Adoptive Father 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
When does the Bible ever say Mary was sinless?
2007-10-27 15:31:40 · answer #10 · answered by cadisneygirl 7 · 4⤊ 2⤋