English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

28 answers

He was qouting and fulfilling .Psalms

22:1 [To the chief Musician upon Aijeleth Shahar, A Psalm of David.] My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me? why art thou so far from helping me, and from the words of my roaring?

2007-10-27 15:19:21 · answer #1 · answered by Royal Racer Hell=Grave © 7 · 3 5

Jesus was simply quoting the first verse of Psalm 22, as Psalm written by King David 1000 years before Christ's death which pointed to the Messiah. Read the Psalm and discover what other things in it relate to the crucifixion.

2007-10-27 15:52:48 · answer #2 · answered by Steve Amato 6 · 2 0

Jesus did not represent himself as equal to God while He was in the flesh. In John 10:30 is says, " I and my Father are One.

Jesus took on all man's sin on the cross. God can not be Part of sin. Jesus in the flesh and fully a man could carry the burden and did. God placed all sin upon Jesus and had to turn from Him just as our sin today separates us from God. Jesus full filled prophesy and then said , " It is done." Jesus never felt the distance of God before and cried out those words. Jesus therefore knows the pain of a sinner and a truly repenting heart. Jesus can not be fooled.

2007-10-27 15:26:51 · answer #3 · answered by Dennis James 5 · 2 1

Because at the time Jesus was human as well as God. When He took all the sins of man onto Him God had to look away. Thus He forsook Him. Jesus is God but He is also separate from the Father. The Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost are one God that exist in three forms simultaneously.

2007-10-27 15:20:40 · answer #4 · answered by Bible warrior 5 · 5 3

Like the first guy said - it's absolute fulfillment of Psalms 22 so the Jews would have no doubt they had murdered the Son of God. And to Jimi4950, when did christ NOT claim to be God???? You'd better research the phrases "Son of God", and "Son of man" to learn what they mean before you make such assertions.

2007-10-27 15:28:41 · answer #5 · answered by Wired 5 · 2 1

If you believe in the theory of the trinity then this would not make sense. If you believe that Jesus, His father, and the Holy Spirit are actual separate individuals, then this would make sense. Read John 17 and tell me that the trinity as set forth by pagan men is true.

2007-10-27 15:26:47 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

That's right, he was quoting Psalms 22, which was written about a thousand years before the fact, 22 goes on to describe the Crucifiction in detail, even the Romans casting lots for Christ's garments.

So, instead of having a weak moment, as some have suggested, Jesus was actually teaching right from the cross. He was pointing to Psalms 22, saying that prophecy's been fulfilled.

2007-10-27 15:23:20 · answer #7 · answered by David G 6 · 4 3

Think your smart dont you? He was quoting scripture

You will not understand unless u accept the Trinity as fact. Jesus was fully human and FULLY GOD. When Jesus walked this earth as a man He surrendered HIS WILL COMPLETELY to the WILL of His Father. "...not My will but Your will be done ..."

Jesus prayed unceasingly throughout his human lifetime...yet this last prayer of his is quoted time and again ( by atheists as well as many so called christians) to "prove" that Jesus is not God...please!!

ask a catholic priest if u r genuine

2007-10-27 16:31:39 · answer #8 · answered by Orita 3 · 0 2

Jesus was only God manifested in the flesh. Jesus had the power of God. Jesus was doing what God would have done if God had a came here Himself. Jesus was with God when God created the Heavens and earth.

2007-10-27 15:23:11 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1 4

THE GOD OF ABRAHAM, ISAAC, JACOB, DAVID, SOLOMON AND JESUS

Heb.11:1-40; 12:1,2; The LORD God of the bible people and writers.

SOLOMON TEMPLE TO MAKE GOD'S NAME KNOWN AND WHAT NAME IS ON FOREHEAD OF THESE REV.14:1-6, 7;

Gen.21:33; 22:14[Abraham and LORD God of Jesus]; Exo.6:3; 17:15[ Moses and LORD God of Jesus]; Judges 6:24[Gideon and LORD God of Jesus]; Psm.68:4; 83:18 [ David and LORD God of Jesus ]; Isa.12:2; 24:4[Isaiah and LORD God of Jesus]; John 17:1-26; Rev.14:1-6,7; Matt.6:9-11 [ our Father [ Jehovah ], who art in heaven, hallowed be thy name, they kingdom come, thy will be done on earth as it is in heaven ];
Jesus was with God before the world was John 17:3,5,24; Jesus was before Abraham [ born 4065 years ago and Noah 5017 years ago ], Jesus was before all beings Col.1:15-17; created by God in his image. Rev.3:14; Matt.3:16; 16:16; John 14:13,14,28;

Jesus fulfilled the scriptures fully, from birth to baptism, to crucifixion, and burial did John 19:38-42;

KJV Bible 1611 published, at 303 years is WW1, Jehovah is now a correct translation by law of man, is by law for God, 334 years end of WW2, 363 years end of Vietnam conflict, 380 to to 391 to 396 at 2007 after Christ, Euphrates area conflict Rev.9:12-16; 391 Rev.16:12-16; Euphrates area conflict continues.

2007-10-27 15:34:11 · answer #10 · answered by jeni 7 · 0 1

I've been an atheist since I got to planet earth over 60 years ago.
I thought of this when I first heard the story when I was about 12 or so - can't really remember when but it was a glaring contradiction within the doctrine - it was completely illogical and did much to show me that xianity in general is such a crock.
Since then I've found a few more contradictions*.

2007-10-27 15:25:47 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 2 3

fedest.com, questions and answers