Could someone clarify Genesis 3, I've looked up certain words mean but it isn't what the NIV says?

Question

In regards to Eve giving Adam the apple the NIV says "She also gave some to her husband, who was with her, and he ate it. " but the cordance hebrew/greek says it means

1) to eat, devour, burn up, feed

a) (Qal)

1) to eat (human subject)

2) to eat, devour (of beasts and birds)

3) to devour, consume (of fire)

4) to devour, slay (of sword)

5) to devour, consume, destroy (inanimate subjects - ie, pestilence, drought)

6) to devour (of oppression)

b) (Niphal)

1) to be eaten (by men)

2) to be devoured, consumed (of fire)

3) to be wasted, destroyed (of flesh)

c) (Pual)

1) to cause to eat, feed with *********

2) to cause to devour

d) (Hiphil)

1) to feed

2) to cause to eat

e) (Piel)

1) consume

could anyone tell me why the NIV says that Adam was with her

Well the only word with was to "eat with"
not he was with her

I think it makes a big difference, not in anything that matters much, but there is a difference in standing idoly by and letting Eve make the choice. In the case case of the NIV, he didn't say anything, he could have said maybe Eve we shouldn't eat it, God said no.

But if it means that she found him later told him that she ate some and she didn't die and then he ate with her. It has to totally different ways it happened.

and I ask this because a small thing translated that may not have revelence can be mistranslated, how can I be sure that other things are mistranslated. I like to look at what words mean in the orginal language because a lot of times I get a deeper understanding.

Answer 1

Satan beguiled Eve, but Eve gave it to Adam, not Satan. Adam was not beguiled by Satan, but caved in to Eve. Adam
knew it was wrong, Eve was beguiled through Satan's lie;
"ye shall not surely die".

Genesis 3:15&22, are very interesting verses. God speaking to Satan, "I will put ENMITY between thee and the woman, and between THY SEED and her seed".

What or who is Satan's SEED? The word does tell what is
"enmity" against God:

Romans 8:7, "..THE CARNAL MIND IS ENMITY AGAINST GOD". (8), "...they that are in the FLESH cannot please God".

Our carnal flesh is enmity against God, and is the direct result of Adam's fall. Before that time, Adam & Eve had a
perfect body, which was not subject to death. That brings me to the other verse in Genesis that I mentioned as very interesting;

Genesis 3:22, "And the Lord God said, BEHOLD, the man is become as one of us, to know good and evil: and NOW, lest he put forth his hand, and take also of the tree of LIFE, and eat, and LIVE FOR EVER:"

Prior to partaking of the tree of the KNOWLEDGE of good and evil, Adam & Eve knew only good. They had partook of the good, but it was the evil which they partook of and then had knowledge of BOTH good/God and evil/Satan. Sin is the "sting of death", so that is when death began to happen &
we became carnal flesh. Our carnal nature is at war against our spiritual, even to this day, as a result of Adam's fall, but
Jesus came and fixed that, by living a perfect life for us, and by dying a sinners death for us, and by rising VICTORIOUS over both, sin & death.

JESUS IS THE WOMAN'S SEED which Satan's seed is enmity against. Christ IN US, our hope. Paul in Romans 7:13-25, describes this enmity, beautifully. He speaks of our "inward man" which delights in the law of God, and he
plainly describes the conflict of his flesh member against
his spiritual man. These verses appear as though Paul were two seperate people, one flesh and the other spiritual.

Answer 2

There is a huge problem with the Genesis account of the events surrounding this tree. It has nothing to do with being a God-hater, mocker, or even being an atheist. Adam and Eve are in a state of perfection, living in a world without any known evil. Correct? Innocent new born (so to speak) created children. Children who have neither been exposed to EVIL or even have the ability to understand the meaning of the word EVIL. Correct? In Chapter 2 of Genesis the story tells us God himself brings up the subject of EVIL. How can that be? Was he playing games with his new creation. Eve apparently memorized what God himself told her about the 'tree of good and EVIL". What is wrong with this scenario? Why after eating this fruit, did in an instant the first man and woman conclude that 'nakedness' represented EVIL. I will tell you why, because the story teller a man Moses, exposed to the old law covenants restrictions on even looking upon nakedness, considered that to be really, really bad. Can't anyone with any common sense, see what this ancient Jew was doing? I guess it is just to hard to get by all the 'sin', paying for sin, ransom, and myriad other interpretations tied to those Genesis stories, for Christians to really grasp how ridiculous the whole fairy tale is. Please start to think about what you are attributing as absolute fact, may be nothing more than a very prolific ancient mind trying to make sense of the world around him.

Answer 3

Why the NIV fundamentally changes the word of God. ...and before anyone says anything, if you think the KJV is no better, then you don't believe it was an inspired exercise and that is quite a different matter...

The NIV was created as the result of a committees voting... Consider the following story...

One day, a cat wanders into an elementary school classroom. In the class are the sons of 1) a lawyer, 2) a doctor and 3) a politician. The teacher sees an opportunity to turn this happenstance into a learning exercise and poses the following question to the class... "Is this cat a boy cat or a girl cat? How can we find out?"

The lawyers son suggest the following. "...let's find the owner, put him in front of the class and get him to tell us whether it's a boy or a girl by asking him questions..."

The doctor's son suggest the following. "...let's examine the cat, see which organs it has and determine the sex that way..."

The politician's son suggest the following. "...let's vote on it..."

The word of God cannot be decided based upon popular opinion. It's the word of God period...

Something to think about.

Answer 4

Adam was right there with her, it's not just the NIV that says he was there, it's the Hebrew Text as well. It's a difficult thing to suddenly realize that Adam was there when all our lives someone was teaching us what was written in Paradise Lost. That's when the idea of Adam not being around at the time came out and there are, sadly, some who have been taught that and didn't look at what the Bible said.

Answer 5

dont worry about the small stuff. And by the way, you are on the right track . While each translation is different, they are all based off of the inspired perfect Word of God, the original manuscripts. The KJV, in its ancient wisdom, is still a translation, just like the NIV or the Message. Use whatever version suits you best.

Answer 6

I have never received a good answer. Did Adam also see the serpent and was tricked as well? I have never heard anything other than that Adam is also to blame for the fall of man because he followed Eve to the tree and didn't prohibit her from eating the apple, and then also ate some himself.

Answer 7

1. Is there any version/translation of scripture tha says it was an apple she gave him? Or is it 'man's tradition' that it was an apple?
2. I would have to look at that point closer presently; to me presently it may not matter if he was 1 foot or 1 mile away at that time. The important part to me presently is 'they both partook of fruit they were not suppose to then in the Garden of Eden.

Answer 8

The devil gave the fruit to her first......obviously Adam wasn't around at the time....which allowed her to be deceived in the first place.

Adam probably showed up a bit later. Either way, the NIV remains true. It is still the version I use for study.

Answer 9

The FAILURE TO UNDERSTAND... is Quite Clear!

Did GOD.... command them.... NOT TO EAT.... OF THE TREE OF THE KNOWLEDGE OF GOOD AND EVIL?

YES.... HE DID....!

DID THEY.... Eve First.... DISOBEY.... and then give to Adam?

YES....!

Perhaps IF... you will see Romans

(Rom 1:26) For this cause, God gave them up to dishonorable affections. = = For even their = = women = = changed the natural use into that which is against nature.

(Rom 1:27) And likewise = = also the men, = = leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust toward one another; males with males working out shamefulness, and receiving in themselves the recompense which was fitting for their error.

THE.... WOMAN... was the first.... TO DISOBEY... GOD!

Thanks, RR

Answer 10

Sorry....your question isn't making enough sense to answer.