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How does these sections of scripture relate to Peter's vision in Acts 10 & 11?

2007-10-11 02:39:55 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Fuzzy, I think you miss the point, read some of the answers above yours

2007-10-11 04:05:42 · update #1

Pugwash, I think you may be referencing the wrong set of laws. The 600 or so Laws in the Torah are not the problem.

2007-10-11 16:57:29 · update #2

5 answers

Jesus needed to restate Leviticus 19: 18 because the people had gotten so bogged down in the hundreds of rules, that they forgot the foundation for the law - love your neighbor as yourself.

These sections relate to Peter's visions in that Peter's visions reminded him that the Gentiles are the neighbor of the jews.

2007-10-11 02:52:51 · answer #1 · answered by Sldgman 7 · 2 0

(Leviticus 19:18) “‘You must not take vengeance nor have a grudge against the sons of your people; and you must love your fellow as yourself. I am Jehovah.

The Jewish leaders of Jesus' day had lost their love and affection for the people and were only interested in having power over them. Like changing the commandments to about 600 laws that no one was able to fully obey. Like washing of the hands and arms right up to the elbows prior to eating..An exaggeration where really all that was needed was to simply wash the hands.

2007-10-11 09:56:59 · answer #2 · answered by pugjw9896 7 · 0 0

The people had the Masonic law, A eye for an eye etc. God restate Leviticus 19:18 to remind then about love for each other. God had not put it in their hearts then, to know when they were doing wrong, They had to be told, the right thing to do. The law was given to let them know when they were doing wrong, it did not tell them the right thing or how to be righteous; until the ten commandments; and when God put it in every ones heart to know when they are wrong..

2007-10-13 00:08:48 · answer #3 · answered by Herb E 4 · 0 1

There are several scriptures that use the word Gentiles (translation dependent) that in my opinion relate more to Acts 10 & 11 than the Royal law you mentioned in chapter 22.

Here is one:
Isaiah 42:6, I, Jehovah, have called thee in righteousness, and will hold thy hand, and will keep thee,

and give thee for a covenant of the people,

for a light of the Gentiles;

7to open the blind eyes, to bring out the prisoners from the dungeon, and them that sit in darkness out of the prison-house. (ASV)
^^^^^^^^

From scriptures such as this one, I feel that the OT prophecies clearly foretell the event found in Acts 10 &11.

Also, I believe Hosea stated that those not a previously a people would become God's people.
Hosea 2:23, . . . and I will say to them that were not my people, Thou art my people; and they shall say, Thou art my God . . .
^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^

To answer your primary question, the attitude of the leadership surely didn't seem to stress as important this one law. Probably, they had intense discussions among themselves, the learned, about which one would be the most important law.

Wouldn't this be enough for Jesus to use this occasion to teach also his disciples which law/s was/were supreme?

2007-10-11 11:00:37 · answer #4 · answered by Fuzzy 7 · 0 0

For the same reason it should be heard again today, pride[one person thinking he or she is better than another] is still the greatest tools of satan that destroys relationships among Christians today- even Peter had a problem with it. By the way, that same spirit is the founder of all these different denominations in Christianity today.

2007-10-11 09:59:53 · answer #5 · answered by RRJJ 2 · 2 0

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