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4 answers

Richard S called in in one. I do not understand what the ask-er wants?

Edit: "Because it left out women" No the wording is clear it says citizens; however, custom and usage of the times excluded women. This does not mean that the 15th amendment did not guarantee their rights and it did not take the 19th amendment to force men to follow the law.

2007-10-10 17:20:13 · answer #1 · answered by Coasty 7 · 0 0

The Fourteenth Amendment did not explicitly grant the vote to African American men, although it decreased Congressional representation for states that denied them the vote. Congress debated proposals for an amendment forbidding discrimination in voting based on race, and some argued that women's suffrage should also be included. The Amendment passed in 1869 and was ratified in 1870 but did not mention gender. As a result it benefited only men until 1920, when the Nineteenth Amendment was ratified. For almost one hundred years after its ratification, the Fifteenth Amendment offered very little protection to African American men, either.

2007-10-14 01:15:10 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Because it left out women. That oversight was corrected with the ratification of the 19th Amendment.

2007-10-10 18:38:10 · answer #3 · answered by desertviking_00 7 · 0 0

"The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of race, color, or previous condition of servitude." That seems to cover just about everyone to me -- what are you reading into it?

2007-10-10 17:09:39 · answer #4 · answered by Richard S 5 · 0 0

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