The church itself strove to be a dominant political power, even from its earliest days.
Eusubius, one of the earliest known scholars for the church, wrote about how lies, and deception were useful to maintain power. In his Ecclesiastical History, he writes, "We shall introduce into this history in general only those events which may be useful first to ourselves and afterwards to posterity." (Vol. 8, chapter 2). In his Praeparatio Evangelica, he includes a chapter titled, "How it may be Lawful and Fitting to use Falsehood as a Medicine, and for the Benefit of those who Want to be Deceived" (book 12, chapter 32). (from nobeliefs.com/exist)
Kings bowed to the the church. The crusades were fought with the armies of countries, at the command of the church. In the time before the Gutenburg printing press, the church controlled education, both the teaching and who was taught. Vatican City is the smallest soveriegn nation on the planet.
With all of this history, why is it any surprise that those who authorize translations of the bible, do so with a political agenda?
2007-10-05 23:18:43
·
answer #1
·
answered by Bill K Atheist Goodfella 6
·
4⤊
1⤋
There have been various translations. Every translation is intended to be an accurate rendering of the original, but many expressions cannot be translated exactly. When you try to convey meaning, your own views start to creep in.
The King James version of the New Testament was a reasonable stab at translation from the Greek. However people were still used to religion being in Latin, so it was deliberately phrased in "old fashioned" language. That's why in many places it uses the wrong form of "-eth", "-yth" and "ye" all of which had gone out of use 200 years earlier.
The King James version of the Old Testament relied heavily on the Tyndale translation which had strong political undertones.
As a piece of translation, the Kings James bible might have some serious flaws, but it is a masterpiece of English prose and the origin of many of our day-to-day expressions.
2007-10-05 23:08:01
·
answer #2
·
answered by Anonymous
·
2⤊
0⤋
Every time something is translated there is bias.
Personal & political bias of the translator does and had existed.
Then the Bible was formalised the gender bias removed the Gospel according to Mary. {aside: woops that's an automatic thumbs down....}
Another example is The King James's version, which had a number of slight alterations to deal with his various phobias - although in my mind - a Scottish King, raised in France & deemed the only person to succeed Elizabeth I ought to have enough phobias by themselves.
.
2007-10-05 23:17:18
·
answer #3
·
answered by Rai A 7
·
2⤊
0⤋
That is a naive view of the history of the bible. There are still ancient manuscripts of the bible from not long after Jesus was on earth, so to say the bible has changed for a political agenda is simply not true. The King James Version is simply an English translation.
2007-10-05 22:57:23
·
answer #4
·
answered by RedKnight 2
·
3⤊
2⤋
KJV uses 80% of Tyndale's version. Tyndale didn't alter text of course, but for instance he might translate Eclessia=church as assembly, since a church is really an assembly or group of christians, whereas the "church" could unfortunately at that time be taken to mean the established catholic church organisation, who didn't like christians to assembly outside their control.
It is a lie though to claim the text was distorted; but words can be translated to different equivalents and so a person's own conception of what is true can make them choose one word over another. However a core christian text, John's gospel, which makes salvation very clear to readers, uses very simple words and is easy to translate; there is no ability to unintentionally distort there. Some people from false religions try to make out its corrupt, but have to make vague comments. There are small scribal errors in some of the origingal manuscripts but the meaning is very clear as the same truths are expressed again and again.
2007-10-06 00:47:23
·
answer #5
·
answered by Cader and Glyder scrambler 7
·
2⤊
1⤋
The King James translation of the Bible is just that, a translation. It was not altered to fit somebody's political policies.
2007-10-05 22:54:16
·
answer #6
·
answered by Northstar 7
·
3⤊
3⤋
because from the very beginning the versions of the bible were written by people with a political agenda who wanted to influence people through that book. starting with the scribes of joshua and the kings of israel, going on to ezrah and nechemias and to the people who wrote the christian bible's different versions.
2007-10-05 22:56:42
·
answer #7
·
answered by joe the man 7
·
2⤊
1⤋
Because from the dawn of man's history, religion has been used to control the masses and continue the wealth and power accumulation by the men in power.
2007-10-05 22:57:19
·
answer #8
·
answered by Gem 7
·
2⤊
1⤋
that's just the way mankind is
2007-10-06 00:00:57
·
answer #9
·
answered by The Duke 2
·
1⤊
0⤋
translations are what they are - translations.
2007-10-05 23:14:40
·
answer #10
·
answered by neshama 5
·
2⤊
1⤋