can anyone give me a chapter and a verse?
2007-10-05 12:00:33 · 12 answers · asked by jameson 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
clark H---what you are talking about is the immaculate conception of Jesus not mary. soem beleive mary was conceived without sin, meaning that God impregnated mary's mother. thus, she being the immaculate conception not jesus. i am looking for proof of this.
2007-10-05 12:25:45 · update #1
You are mistaken with Clark H. There is no such thing as the immaculate conception of Jesus. All the immaculate conception means is that Mary was preserved from Original Sin, in view of the merrits of her Redeemer, Jesus Christ. Jesus, who is God, was never in consideration for Original sin.
When we look at Luke 1:28 "And he came to her and said, 'Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with you!'" The word "kekaritomene' is here translated as "full of grace". It is the perfect participle of the verb which means "to endow, to grace". This means it's an action in the past. This term is used no where else in Scripture. It is used as a title.
2007-10-05 13:10:03 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 3⤋
The "Immaculate Conception" in the Roman Catholic Church refers, much to my surprise, to the conception of *Mary*, *not* to the conception of Jesus. (I am surprised because I once attended a RC seminary, yet I always thought that this referred to Jesus. I am still Christian, but no longer RC).
The RCC catechism uses these verses as support:
Luk 1:28 (specifically the phrase "full of grace")
Eph 1:3-4 (specifically, "and chose her 'in Christ before the foundation of the world, to be holy and blameless before him in love.' "
Thus, they believe that Mary was chosen before her own birth (as were we all), but *especially* as the vessel chosen to give birth to the son of God. Again, from the catechism:
"In fact, in order for Mary to be able to give the free assent of her faith to the announcement of her vocation, it was necessary that she be wholly borne by God's grace."
It goes on, in a way that is rather high-brow. If you're really interested, e-mail me and I will send you the entire section - only about 4 rather deep paragraphs. I only have a physics degree, and this seems to be some heavy-duty philosophy.
Actually, I have little doubt that it *does* makes sense. The RCC doctrine has a great deal of cohesiveness (they've had centuries to work out the kinks and contradictions). Nevertheless, this teaching does not *seem* reasonable to me, and even more important, it does not really matter.
Jim, http://www.jimpettis.com/wheel/
2007-10-08 17:53:07 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It doesn't. The Immaculate Conception refers to the belief that Mary was created without Original Sin, and it isn't supported by the Bible.
2007-10-05 12:04:27 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 2⤋
Immaculate simply means she was a VIRGIN at conception of Christ. Immaculate means unblemished...which means Mary the Virgin Mother. Stop Mary bashing. She was the chosen mother of God. And, no...Catholics do not worship Mary...We worship Christ. We pray for Mary as an Intecessor to Christ. Not as an idol. Most non-Catholics believe in Angels...why don't they place more trust in Mary, the Mother of God??? You love your mother, don't you???
2007-10-05 13:55:14 · answer #4 · answered by kvett26 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
When the angel told her she would be the mother of GOD the angel told her the Holy spirit would pass over her and she would be carrying baby Jesus.This mean she was always a virgin meaning she never had sex.When she appeared to the children of Fatima the asked her who she was and she answered I am The Immaculate Conception Which means she was a virgin.
2007-10-05 12:10:08 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
The Immaculate Conception is a Catholic doctrine which, although having no specific verse to support it, has ancillary support in the Bible. The idea is that since Mary was destined to bear Jesus, she was saved from the foundation of the earth and thus wasn't born with original sin. It's a nit of theology.
Here's a link to some biblical justification of the doctrine.
http://www.catholicapologetics.org/ap080400.htm
2007-10-05 12:05:36 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 5⤋
Luke 1:28-38
it doesn't use the phrase immaculate conception . . . that is our term for the whole "a virgin is made pregnant by the power of God and she gives birth". That is too long to say . . . so as language allows, we have a phrase that means that "context", that "event" . . . to be encapsulated into several words.
hope that helps . . . and I hope you read it for yourself
2007-10-05 12:20:57 · answer #7 · answered by Clark H 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Mary was not conceived by immaculate conception. She was a God fearing woman who found favor in Jehovah's eyes as well as being from the tribe of David.
2007-10-05 12:05:52 · answer #8 · answered by Here I Am 7 · 1⤊ 4⤋
Mary died and was buried, just like the rest of us. She was blessed because she was chosen by God to bear his Son...but that didn't make her divine and she didn't ascend to Heaven. she is in her grave, until the day when the dead in Christ shall rise...then and only then, will she rise up to meet the Lord in the air. Along with the rest of us who died with Christ as our Savior. The dead in Christ shall rise first and then those who are alive on Earth, who are his children , shall rise to meet the Lord in the air.
To add to the bible is a grievous thing. Those who do it will be punished.
2007-10-05 12:46:40 · answer #9 · answered by dreamdress2 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
*gets a pencil and sketches "immaculate conception" at the heading of the bible* there!
Seriously, you can't find that anywhere in the Bible. It's a catholic thingy of course.
2007-10-05 12:07:05 · answer #10 · answered by +*♥£öVe§♥*+ 2 · 1⤊ 3⤋