no inxs did
2007-10-05 03:10:36
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Interesting question.
Jesus was different in this respect since He is also God and God cannot sin. Jesus is without sin, so He is the only person that can die in our place. That way, the requirements of the law are fulfilled and we get another chance to go to Heaven. We just need to accept His generous gift. Perhaps these verses can help?
Hebrews 4:15 For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but one who in every respect has been tempted as we are, yet without sin.
2 Corinthians 5:21 God made the one who did not know sin to be sin for us, so that we might become God's righteousness in him.
Romans 8:3-4 For what the law was powerless to do in that it was weakened by the flesh, God did by sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh to deal with sin. He condemned sin in the flesh (4) so that the righteous requirement of the law might be fulfilled in us, who do not live according to the flesh but according to the Spirit.
Not to argue too much with Catholics - I like them. Maybe they are correct and I'm wrong, but I don't get the Mary being without sin thing and I don't see that in the Bible. Using their logic that for Jesus to be born without sin, Mary had to be born without sin, it wouldn't stop there. In other words, for Mary to be born without sin, her parents would have to be born without sin and on and on, right? Why wouldn't God just have Jesus be born without sin? I'm not sure they have the answer to this question.
2007-10-05 03:42:48
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answer #2
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answered by MikeM 6
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Jesus was born without original sin as was his mother, Mary. Original sin passed through both mother and father as our original parents (Adam and Eve) both sinned against God. Mary was born in what is referred to as the immaculate conception, meaning God spared her from the stain of original sin. Jesus was born unto Mary and had no earthly father and therefore was also without original sin.
Mary is the new ark of the covenant. The Ark was made pure and carried the word of God (the ten commandments) as Mary was made pure, also carrying the (living) word of God.
2007-10-05 03:23:39
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answer #3
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answered by osborne_pkg 5
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Jesus had no sin of any kind.
Jesus was conceived by the power of the Holy Spirit and his mother Mary was supernaturally preserved from sin from the moment of her own conception, so that Jesus' flesh, which came from Mary, would never be stained by any type of sin, because if it was, he would have been totally unsuitable to be our savior.
If either Jesus or his mom ever sinned, or if either were ever affected by original sin, the devil would have had dominion over them, and that would have made it impossible for Jesus to destroy satan's dominion over mankind.
The fact that everyone else who was ever born inherited original sin from our first parents, is the reason that the sinless son of God had to come as a man and save us from eternal slavery to satan, sin, and death.
The proof that Jesus had no sin is his resurrection, as only one with no sin had the power to lay down his life and to take it up again, by his own power.
Jesus went even further than that, when he took that crucified and resurrected body back to heaven with him.
2007-10-05 05:07:52
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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the unique sin is surpassed on via Adam, or the male important different of a union. the female does not pass the unique sin, even with the shown fact that she recieves it from her father. Mary grew to become into not born without unique sin, she won it from her father. Jesus on the different hand, had no earthly father, He grew to become into conceived via the Holy Spirit, subsequently, He never won the unique sin. attempt to not learn lots from guy, yet from the Holy Spirit. The Bible is God's Holy written word, once you study it, God speaks to you. there is not any mediator between God and guy, different than the Son of God, Jesus the Messiah. Pray for know-how, talk over with God on a regular basis, study the Scriptures on a regular basis, and the Holy Spirit will answer all your questions. God be with you, Evangelist, William M. Butler, St. Luke Ministries
2016-11-07 08:23:18
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answer #5
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answered by purifory 4
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Now you know why the Catholic Church teaches that by a singular grace of God Mary was conceived without the stain of original sin. Since she would be the Mother of God, it was necessary that she NOT hand on mankind's heritage to His humanity. Thus Christ was born without that stain. This made His sacrifice all the more potent, since He alone of all humanity was utterly without sin or its stain.
2007-10-05 03:10:08
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answer #6
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answered by Granny Annie 6
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Before we can answer this question, we need to know what the term "original sin" means. This is a term used to describe the effect of Adam's sin on his descendants (Rom. 5:12-32). Specifically, it is our inheritance of a sinful nature from Adam. The sinful nature originated with Adam and is passed down from parent to child. We are by nature children of wrath (Eph. 3:2). So, if we inherit our sinful nature from our parents, then Jesus, who had Mary as a parent, must have had a sin nature. Right? Not necessarily. I believe that the sin nature is passed down through the father. Let me explain.
Some Bible commentators, with whom I agree, hold the position that the sin nature is passed down through the father. Support for this position is found in the fact that sin entered the world through Adam, not Eve. Remember, Eve was the one who sinned first. However, sin did not enter the world through her. It entered through Adam. Rom. 5:12 says, "Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned." The concept behind this is called Federal Headship. This means that a person (a father) represents his descendants. We see this concept taught in Heb. 7:9-10, "And, so to speak, through Abraham even Levi, who received tithes, paid tithes, 10for he was still in the loins of his father when Melchizedek met him." We see in Hebrews that Levi, a distant descendant of Abraham, is said to have paid tithes to Melchizedek when Abraham was the one offering the tithes, not Levi. What this means is that there is biblical support for the idea that the sin nature was passed down through the father. Since Jesus had not literal, biological father, the sin nature was not passed down to Him. However, since He had a human mother, he was fully human but without original sin. Jesus has two natures: God and man. Col. 2:9 says, "For in Him dwells all the fullness of deity in bodily form." Jesus received His human nature from Mary, but He received His divine nature through God the Holy Spirit. Therefore, Jesus is both God and man. He was sinless, had no original sin, and was both fully God and fully man.
2007-10-05 03:40:26
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answer #7
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answered by lorenzo ruiz 3
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That's why they made up the virgin birth thing. It's being conceived through sexual union that some believe makes us succeptable to "original sin".
2007-10-05 03:13:07
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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He didn't have a human father. Biology teaches us that the chromosome responsible for death is passed on to us through our fathers, not our mothers. Jesus was as perfect as Adam, seeing as though he would not age nor die. His cells would keep on renewing themselves always.
2007-10-05 03:09:39
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answer #9
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answered by Starjumper the R&S Cow 7
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there is no sin , no god, nothing
he was just a normal bloke who died in an attempt to correct humanity and unconsciously gave the world thousands of wars and lots of bloodshed for the future
2007-10-05 03:08:24
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answer #10
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answered by mega_mover 4
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No such thing. We shall be judged for our own sins and not Adam's transgressions.
2007-10-05 04:12:11
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answer #11
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answered by Isolde 7
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