Romans 3:23.
23: for all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God. Version 1.
23: for all will sin. and come short of the glory of God. Version2
do you see a differance or are they both the same.
2007-10-05 02:23:39 · 17 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
do you agree with the first one that there is a chance for you to be good and recive the Glory of God, and the second one closes that door.
2007-10-05 02:29:44 · update #1
Present Perfect Simple and Future Simple. Basically that a man will sin always.
2007-10-05 02:29:11 · answer #1 · answered by Starjumper the R&S Cow 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
one is past tense and one is future...
it is explaining in the first version that everyone has sinned because its been over and done with, and everyone has fulfilled their belief and gotten rid of their sins and have come short of the glory of god!
the second version is saying not yet but they WILL accomplish their beliefs and will get rid of their sins and become short of the glory of god.
they are close to the same but one is more forcing and more empowering than the other.
the version 2 is more empowering because it is saying they will! its not saying some will or some have some havnt its saying that all WILL!
hope this makes sense...
2007-10-05 02:28:31 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
One says you have already sinned and come short of the glory of god ,the other says you will sin and come short of the glory of god.Basically one says you already messed up and the other says you will mess up.
2007-10-05 02:27:21 · answer #3 · answered by JUGGALETTE4LYFE 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I have checked 5 different bible versions and they all say: for all have sinned. What is your point? You should keep going, it also says: and all are justified by God's free Grace alone, through his act of liberation in the person of Jesus Christ.
For God designed him to be the means of expiating sin by His sacraficial death, effective through Faith.
2007-10-05 02:33:30 · answer #4 · answered by teatotler 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The first version is right because the second version implies that we were not already born in sin which we are.
2007-10-05 02:32:15 · answer #5 · answered by Reshonda P 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In essence, they are the same.
No. I don't agree that sin closes the door.
What it means is that we have all sinned and will continue to sin, we may fall short of the glory of God, but God has bestowed his mercy and grace upon us through Christ.
Romans 3: 22-24
(New International Version)
22: This righteousness from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no difference,
23 for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God,
24 and are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus.
(New International Reader's Version)
22 We are made right with God by putting our faith in Jesus Christ. That happens to all who believe. It is no different for the Jews than for anyone else.
23 Everyone has sinned. No one measures up to God's glory. 24 The free gift of God's grace makes all of us right with him. Christ Jesus paid the price to set us free.
(King James Version)
22Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference:
23For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;
24Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus:
The message is the same.
2007-10-05 02:27:38 · answer #6 · answered by Soul Shaper 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Respectfully, please site which Translation you're using.
I am looking at a website that lists about 10 different translations and all say "have". In any event, it's all pointing to our sinful state.
I can cut & paste here but that would be too annoying.
2007-10-05 02:28:44 · answer #7 · answered by Q&A Queen 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
LOL gotta love Christianity, makes new versions based on how they want to view the Bible
2007-10-05 02:28:01 · answer #8 · answered by ST 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Depends on how you look at it. In my mind both express the fact that mankind has a sinful nature.:)
2007-10-05 02:36:53 · answer #9 · answered by Erica R 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. There are what you call corrupted translations. Read the King James Version. It has not been corrupted.
2007-10-05 02:28:59 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋