2007-10-05 02:05:01 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Great question ! That is why he couldn't have been the original person who received the inheritance to the Catholic Church from Jesus !
Well done !
2007-10-05 02:11:25 · answer #1 · answered by Big Bear 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
A) All we know about Peter's home life was that at one time he was married. We do NOT know if his wife still lived when he began to follow Our Lord, just that he was taking care of her mother.
B) Neither papal nor priestly celibacy began to be practiced until the late Middle Ages so if any pope was wed before Canon Law disallowed priestly marriages, what the heck difference would it have made if Peter's wife HAD still been living?
C) SHEEEESH! Still another fatuous query from an individual whose thought processes are, to say the least, minimal! And whose knowledge of church history is non-existent.
D) I don't mind that people are ignorant. I DO mind if they use that ignorance as if it were a viable weapon against the Faith! FOR SHAME!!
2007-10-05 09:12:43 · answer #2 · answered by Granny Annie 6 · 3⤊ 3⤋
He had a wife because he married a woman . He had a mother-in-law because the woman he married had a mother .
2007-10-05 10:34:17 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No one calls him a pope but catholics. The rules weren't made up yet. He also had them before becoming an Apostle.
2007-10-05 09:24:35 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Peter was not a pope. nor was the church based upon him . the church i came out of , believes that when Jesus said "upon this rock i will call my church" is talking to them only.
Alas !! someone reads their Bible. I didnt us e to , they only went by the New TEstament. & you have to be baptized & take the Lords supper & work for your salvation, this is not "faith' but works.
the rock" Jesus was referring to was HImself, Petra, or Peter means "small stone" in the oringinal translation. , but they do not study their Bible, it's a table piece, to look good.
p.s. Watch "Snapped"Sunday night (9:30 central) for the story of Mary winkler. tell me what you think.
2007-10-06 01:49:27 · answer #5 · answered by AnnaMaria 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because they were orginally allowed to marry. Later it became obvious that there would serious disputes over inheritance and they realized it would protect all involved to disallow them marriage. That way heirs wouldn't be left with nothing and the church wouldn't be left with nothing.
I believe the monks that followed St Francis of Assisi inspired the celbate state of priests and church clergy....but I'm not sure. Man where's Father K when you need him.
2007-10-05 09:12:16 · answer #6 · answered by ~Heathen Princess~ 7 · 3⤊ 2⤋
And Peter had to give authority over to Paul, in Galatians, and in 1 and 2 Peter. Paul was clearly the "greater" of the apostles, if there is such a thing. The catholics should have chose Paul to build their cult around, it would have been slightly more believable.
2007-10-05 09:08:03 · answer #7 · answered by CJ 6 · 3⤊ 4⤋
Thank you, Daughter...
Many of the Apostles were married with children. I'm sure it was hard on their families when they left to follow Jesus, but that's what they did.
I'm not sure exactly when the Church decided that Priests could not be married; but it was not the initial condition.
Peace.
ETA: Thanks, Granny Annie for answering my question while I was posting, re: when the Church dis-allowed marriage for Priests. :)
2007-10-05 09:14:42 · answer #8 · answered by rose-dancer 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋