2007-09-28 14:56:27 · 27 answers · asked by shiningStar 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
No she did not. She was step mother to Josephs children from a previous marriage.
When forty years of age, Joseph married a woman called Melcha or Escha by some, Salome by others; they lived forty-nine years together and had six children, two daughters and four sons, the youngest of whom was James (the Less, "the Lord's brother"). A year after his wife's death, as the priests announced through Judea that they wished to find in the tribe of Juda a respectable man to espouse Mary, then twelve to fourteen years of age. Joseph, who was at the time ninety years old, went up to Jerusalem among the candidates; a miracle manifested the choice God had made of Joseph, and two years later the Annunciation took place.
Now as we can see those children mentioned in the bible that were Jesus's brothers and sisters were His half brothers and sisters. But Mary was NOT their birth mother. These children were older then Jesus
2007-09-28 15:03:32 · answer #1 · answered by tebone0315 7 · 2⤊ 3⤋
Oh Yes. Mary bore other children, at least four sons as well as daughters.—Mt 2:19-23; 13:55, 56; Mr 6:3.
The Idea that Mary was Ever Virgin is Asinine.
2007-09-28 22:17:49 · answer #2 · answered by conundrum 7 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Here is what scripture says: Anything else is just mans theory.Mary was a Virgin when she had Jesus, after that its obvious by these scriptures that she went on to have children. And what would be the matter if she did?
Luke 8:19 "Then came to him his mother and {his brethren,} and could not come at him for the press.
Vs.20 And it was told him by certain which said, Thy {mother and thy brethren} stand without, desiring to see thee.
Matthew 13:55 " Is not this the carpenter's son? is not his mother called Mary? and {his brethren, James, and Joses, and Simon, and Judas?}
Vs.56 And {his sisters}, are they not all with us? Whence then hath this man all these things?"
2007-09-28 23:11:50 · answer #3 · answered by don_steele54 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Yes she had other children. She was not a virgin anymore. She was only a virgin when God planted the seed of the word in her. And then she and Joseph had other children together. The fact that she was "perpetually" or "forever" a virgin is a lie from the catholic church. It is not in the Word of God at all.
2007-09-29 01:50:34 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
The bible does say Jesus at least had brothers (see Matthew 12:46, John 2:12, Galatians 1:19) so my interpretation would be yes, Mary did have more children.
I would like to see St. Boniface's source for his info on Joseph having a previous marriage. That's news to me and I consider myself fairly well versed in biblical doctrine.
2007-09-28 22:06:35 · answer #5 · answered by gumby 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
No
Mary is Ever Virgin
Exodus 13:2,12 - Jesus is sometimes referred to as the "first-born" son of Mary. But "first-born" is a common Jewish expression meaning the first child to open the womb. It has nothing to do the mother having future children.
Exodus 34:20 - under the Mosaic law, the "first-born" son had to be sanctified. "First-born" status does not require a "second" born.
Ezek. 44:2 - Ezekiel prophesies that no man shall pass through the gate by which the Lord entered the world. This is a prophecy of Mary's perpetual virginity. Mary remained a virgin before, during and after the birth of Jesus.
Mark 6:3 - Jesus was always referred to as "the" son of Mary, not "a" son of Mary. Also "brothers" could have theoretically been Joseph's children from a former marriage that was dissolved by death. However, it is most likely, perhaps most certainly, that Joseph was a virgin, just as were Jesus and Mary. As such, they embodied the true Holy Family, fully consecrated to God.
Luke 1:31,34 - the angel tells Mary that you "will" conceive (using the future tense). Mary responds by saying, "How shall this be?" Mary's response demonstrates that she had taken a vow of lifelong virginity by having no intention to have relations with a man. If Mary did not take such a vow of lifelong virginity, her question would make no sense at all (for we can assume she knew how a child is conceived). She was a consecrated Temple virgin as was an acceptable custom of the times.
Luke 2:41-51 - in searching for Jesus and finding Him in the temple, there is never any mention of other siblings.
John 7:3-4; Mark 3:21 - we see that younger "brothers" were advising Jesus. But this would have been extremely disrespectful for devout Jews if these were Jesus' biological brothers.
John 19:26-27 - it would have been unthinkable for Jesus to commit the care of his mother to a friend if he had brothers.
John 19:25 - the following verses prove that James and Joseph are Jesus' cousins and not his brothers: Mary the wife of Clopas is the sister of the Virgin Mary.
Matt. 27:61, 28:1 - Matthew even refers to Mary the wife of Clopas as "the other Mary."
Matt. 27:56; Mark 15:47 - Mary the wife of Clopas is the mother of James and Joseph.
Mark 6:3 - James and Joseph are called the "brothers" of Jesus. So James and Joseph are Jesus' cousins.
Matt. 10:3 - James is also called the son of "Alpheus." This does not disprove that James is the son of Clopas. The name Alpheus may be Aramaic for Clopas, or James took a Greek name like Saul (Paul), or Mary remarried a man named Alpheus.
V. Jesus' "Brothers" (adelphoi)) = Cousins or Kinsmen
Luke 1:36 - Elizabeth is Mary's kinswoman. Some Bibles translate kinswoman as "cousin," but this is an improper translation because in Hebrew and Aramaic, there is no word for "cousin."
Luke 22:32 - Jesus tells Peter to strengthen his "brethren." In this case, we clearly see Jesus using "brethren" to refer to the other apostles, not his biological brothers.
Acts 1:12-15 - the gathering of Jesus' "brothers" amounts to about 120. That is a lot of "brothers." Brother means kinsmen in Hebrew.
Acts 7:26; 11:1; 13:15,38; 15:3,23,32; 28:17,21 - these are some of many other examples where "brethren" does not mean blood relations.
Rom. 9:3 - Paul uses "brethren" and "kinsmen" interchangeably. "Brothers" of Jesus does not prove Mary had other children.
Gen. 11:26-28 - Lot is Abraham's nephew ("anepsios") / Gen. 13:8; 14:14,16 - Lot is still called Abraham's brother (adelphos") . This proves that, although a Greek word for cousin is "anepsios," Scripture also uses "adelphos" to describe a cousin.
Gen. 29:15 - Laban calls Jacob is "brother" even though Jacob is his nephew. Again, this proves that brother means kinsmen or cousin.
Deut. 23:7; 1 Chron. 15:5-18; Jer. 34:9; Neh. 5:7 -"brethren" means kinsmen. Hebrew and Aramaic have no word for "cousin."
2 Sam. 1:26; 1 Kings 9:13, 20:32 - here we see that "brethren" can even be one who is unrelated (no bloodline), such as a friend.
2 Kings 10:13-14 - King Ahaziah's 42 "brethren" were really his kinsmen.
1 Chron. 23:21-22 - Eleazar's daughters married their "brethren" who were really their cousins.
Neh. 4:14; 5:1,5,8,10,14 - these are more examples of "brothers" meaning "cousins" or "kinsmen."
Tobit 5:11 - Tobit asks Azarias to identify himself and his people, but still calls him "brother."
Amos 1: 9 - brotherhood can also mean an ally (where there is no bloodline).
2007-09-28 22:09:19 · answer #6 · answered by scholar_wood 3 · 1⤊ 4⤋
Yes she had 5 boys & 2 girls (Mark 3:19-21) . . .And he went into a house. 20 Once more the crowd gathered, so that they
were not able even to eat a meal. 21 But when his relatives heard about it, they went out to lay
hold of him, for they were saying: “He has gone out of his mind.”
(Mark 6:1-3) 6 And he departed from there and came into his home territory, and his disciples
followed him. 2 When it became sabbath, he started teaching in the synagogue; and the greater
number of those listening were astounded and said: “Where did this man get these things? And
why should this wisdom have been given this man, and such powerful works be performed
through his hands? 3 This is the carpenter the son of Mary and the brother of James and Joseph
and Judas and Simon, is it not? And his sisters are here with us, are they not?” . . .
(John 7:2-5) . . .However, the festival of the Jews, the festival of tabernacles, was near. 3 Therefore his brothers said to him: “Pass on over from here and go into Ju‧de′a, in order that your disciples also may behold the works you do. 4 For nobody does anything in secret while himself seeking to be known publicly. If you do these things, manifest yourself to the world.” 5 His brothers were, in fact, not exercising faith in him.
2007-09-28 22:01:28 · answer #7 · answered by zorrro857 4 · 3⤊ 3⤋
No
Latria is a Greek term used in Catholic theology to mean adoration, which is the highest form of worship or reverence and is directed only to the Holy Trinity.
Latria is sacrificial in character, and may be offered only to God. Catholics offer other degrees of reverence to the Blessed Virgin Mary and to the Saints; these non-sacrificial types of reverence are called Hyperdulia and Dulia, respectively. Hyperdulia is essentially a heightened degree of dulia provided only to the Blessed Virgin.
In Roman Catholic, Orthodox, and Anglo Catholic theology, veneration is a type of honor distinct from the worship due to God alone. Church theologians have long adopted the terms latria for the sacrificial worship due to God alone, and dulia for the veneration given to saints and icons. Catholic theology also includes the term hyperdulia for the type of veneration specifically paid to Mary, mother of Jesus, in Catholic tradition. This distinction is spelled out in the dogmatic conclusions of the Seventh Ecumenical Council (787), which also decreed that iconoclasm (forbidding icons and their veneration) is a heresy that amounts to a denial of the incarnation of Jesus.
Veneration is a religious symbolic act giving honor to someone by honoring an image of that person, particularly applied to saints.
The Blessed Virgin, as manifesting in a sublimer manner than any other creature the goodness of God, deserves from us a higher recognition and deeper veneration than any other of the saints; and this peculiar cultus due to her because of her unique position in the Divine economy, is designated in theology hyperdulia, that is dulia in an eminent degree. It is unfortunate that neither our own language nor the Latin possesses in its terminology the precision of the Greek. The word latria is never applied in any other sense than that of the incommunicable adoration which is due to God alone. But in English the words adore and worship are still sometimes used, and in the past were commonly so used, to mean also inferior species of religious veneration and even to express admiration or affection for persons living upon the earth. So David "adored" Jonathan. In like manner Miphiboseth "fell on his face and worshipped" David (2 Samuel 9:6).
2007-09-29 01:24:00 · answer #8 · answered by cashelmara 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, after Jesus she was not a virgin as she and Joseph had several children. James, a brother, when on to be an evangelist for Jesus, and not much is know about the others.
2007-09-28 22:01:30 · answer #9 · answered by Pirate AM™ 7 · 3⤊ 3⤋
Not.
There would have been absolutely no reason to entrust the Blessed Virgin into the care of St. John, if there were ANY of Jesus' siblings in existence.
In fact, such an act would have been an insult to Christ's entire family, and contrary to the customs of the time.
2007-09-29 00:06:57 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋