did the "English-speaking people" have "the word of God" from 1525-1604?
2007-09-28 14:53:18 · 7 answers · asked by Benny 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
I was busy with the cries of pain and torture from the inquisitions.
2007-09-28 15:00:41 · answer #1 · answered by God 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: 2 Timothy 3:16
The Bible has always been the 'revealed' word of God. It was written by approximately 800 men over a 1500 year period and yet is completely cohesive. From beginning to end it says the same thing.
The King James Version of the Bible is the English translation of many Greek and Hebrew texts. Until John the Revelator, the Bible was an ongoing revelation. God instructed John to seal it to further change---Rev 22:18 For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book:
Rev 22:19 And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book.
Therefore the English-speaking people of 1525-1604 had the currently revealed Word of God which God allowed them to have. Whether it was in English is another matter, hence King James of Engand's mandate to translate it.
2007-09-28 15:58:50 · answer #2 · answered by Molly 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Try the New International Version , remember the Bible was written in Hebrew and Greek mainly. And this version attempts no sectarian bias, overall a good effort. There is specially one
by Zondervan publishing company that has specific references in Hebrew and Greek , in a attempt to understand what the original word meant. Bible is not to be worshiped Just read so we can understand Gods way of thinking.
2007-09-28 15:05:38 · answer #3 · answered by Eddie R 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The KJV is a translation from the manuscripts, the real Bible. In the 1611 edition, the translators wrote a letter to the reader, saying that they did the best that they could ... but check it out for yourself ... or words to that effect.
2007-09-28 15:01:31 · answer #4 · answered by David G 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
kjv is one of many translations going bavk to the Ancient text of Aramaic origen. there has been many translation from the tyndall, covedale, douay, mathews , among many . It is the word of God that is infallable not the translation.
2007-09-28 15:02:04 · answer #5 · answered by s. grant 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, the KJV is just one of the first English translations, Prior to the KJV it was in Latin and Greek and only those that could read Latin or Greek could read it.
2007-09-28 14:57:19 · answer #6 · answered by Pirate AM™ 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
it's not infallible...who lied to you?
2007-09-28 14:57:44 · answer #7 · answered by Love Yahoo!!! is a prince 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋