Well i remembered, when i was in college my theology prof and me had a little, debate..
My prof said, all human being born here in the world have original sins.. Original sins starts when you still a baby. Meaning the moment you saw the light of the world you automatically has the sin.. They called taht original sin.. that why they saying nobody is perfect int his world, and all the people are born with sins..
So? if that so? if that was the lesson that my college professor learned in their craft, would it be accurate?? coz their teaching it in college level?
So doesnt it confusing.. Is in it, Jesus Christ was born here in the world? so He also have original sin? technically his not perfect too?
what can you say??
((( anyway, Im not an anti-Christ or anything against to our ALmighty. I just have questions, and as a Catholic, i guess i have the rights to know everything who really or what really im worshipping.))) tnx
2007-09-28 04:48:46 · 16 answers · asked by Bonitababe06 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Then why was JESUS CHRIST baptized by John?
Thats why also babies should be baptize early as baby??
Technically, a man that came from a woman womb or uterus, is consequences of sperm and egg? Like Adam and Eve, thats why they had Cain and Abel? even before, Sperm and Egg are the requirements to have a baby inside the womb..Is there really evidence that Jesus was born without any help of sperm??
Bible also printed hundred years A.D., how is the bible so reliable then?
Does Roman Catholic really hides something from us? Thats why people do have lots of questions about our religion?
2007-09-28 05:18:59 · update #1
the first answer is an illustration of how christianity copied pagan religion and the religion of the greeks. half god half human?
anyway, many christians will tell you he had original sin that is why he had to be baptized by john the baptist. i am an atheist but i have a good knowledge of the myth of the christian religion.
Funny how the theologians can't even get their stories straight. If jesus didn't have original sin, why did he have to be baptised? afterall isn't the goal of baptism to wash away original sin?
2007-09-28 04:56:15 · answer #1 · answered by uz 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Apparently seeing the light of this world is not what causes original sin to be passed onto a baby.
It seems to be the contact between a man and a woman (even if they are married) that causes the original sin, and that is why the Bible says that Jesus was not produced by an earthly father, but by the Spirit of God.
Your professor seems to have the wrong cause that passes original sin on.
2007-09-28 05:00:57 · answer #2 · answered by tim 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
You should read the Catechism of the Catholic Church. It'll answer all of your questions.
Jesus was not like us in terms of original sin because He had a second nature that we don't. He was conceived by the power of the Holy Spirit where we were conceived by man. Jesus was 100% fully human with respects to Mary and 100% fully divine with respects to the Holy Spirit. We, on the other hand, were born from both created male and female who had original sin.
2007-09-28 04:57:07 · answer #3 · answered by stpolycarp77 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋
We all bear the sins of our Father's. Jesus' Father was God himself so Jesus was not born into sin like the rest of us. But he could haved sinned on his own. Satan tempted him after his fast in the wilderness. If he would have fallen for these temptations then God would have destroyed us all. But he was successful fulfilling the will of his Father and not committing sin so now we are here with a chance of redeemtion if only we believe in the work Christ has done.
2007-09-28 05:08:24 · answer #4 · answered by Tommiecat 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Original sin is passed down genetically. Christ was a result of the HOLY SPIRIT fertilizing the egg. No male seed involved.
2007-09-28 04:54:03 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 2⤋
Nope. The Angel told Mary that holy spirit would over shadow her and it would thereby keep inherited sin away from this particular child as God's son as stated in Luke 1:35.
2007-09-28 04:57:08 · answer #6 · answered by Sal D 6 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Get this - because this is literally the dogma. Jesus was supposed to have been "immaculately" conceived, right? Mary was inseminated via the ear canal by the Dove of the Holy Spirit (I couldn't make this stuff up) when the angel Gabriel appeared to her. Meanwhile "Original Sin" was thought of as an actual disease that was transmitted via the semen. So since Jesus was conceived not of earthy semen, but of the spiritual semen of the Holy Spirit, he was born without the curse of Original Sin.
Most of this comes from Paul and Augustine, a couple of morbid sexual neurotics who thought of sex as inherently filthy-dirty - hence the "immaculate" (non-sexual) conception of Jesus.
Hey, you can thumb me down for my tone, but I've got my "facts" (such as they are) correct. I know my Christian theology! I just don't believe in it.
2007-09-28 04:54:00 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 4⤋
Did your prof actually suggest that Jesus was included in this? if so you have to wonder at the number of incompetent theologians around today.
2007-09-28 04:53:52 · answer #8 · answered by Sentinel 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Jesus is theologically half-human, half-God. His father, being God, eliminates his original sin.
But virgin births can't happen anyway. It's still a mystery who Jesus' father really was. For some reason, Mary tried to cover-up Jesus' paternity.
2007-09-28 04:52:02 · answer #9 · answered by ideogenetic 7 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Jesus is FULLY God and FULLY man. He is without sin because His Father is God, and His mother was immaculately conceived.
To "Jesus is Lord" (right above me): The Catholic Church teaches EXACTLY what you have said: Your stament makes no sense.
2007-09-28 04:53:51 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 2⤋