if a house is a family property,the area gets developed under s.r.a project,and they get a house under s.r.a scheme.now will the new house in building be considered as family property or not.
2007-09-28 03:36:44 · 2 answers · asked by toploser 5 in Politics & Government ➔ Law Enforcement & Police
Definitely that new property no doubt will be family property. Its only change of place for such property otherwise its nature remains same.i.e. Family property. Now understand the difference between self acquired property & family property. The former is any property which any one purchases with his or her own earned money or money he or she got as his or her share out of the family property at the time of any such family partition. The latter is any property which the members of any family got as a property by way of inheritance which was being in possession of their forefathers & all the later generations enjoyed it as a unit of the joint family, the day any of the member of such family being a coparcener as in case of Hindu family seek partition of such joint family property, gets a share out of it along with other coparcener/members of the family & becomes its sole owner of such part of share. Now how he or she uses his part of share will be his or her discretion as that belongs to him or her & no other family members. Hope you understand this difference between a joint family property & self acquired property.
2007-09-28 05:24:56 · answer #1 · answered by vijay m Indian Lawyer 7 · 6⤊ 0⤋
I don't know what s.r.a. is. But the city can force you to sell your house at fair market value to allow a developer to come in and develope your property to increase a tax base for the city. I believe it was 2006 when the US Supreme Court rulled in favor of the city. I don't remember the name of the case. You are not entitled to another house.
This might not even answer your question at all.
2007-09-28 11:51:37 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋