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2007-09-28 03:24:40 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

JR. your comment only proves that the Holy Spirit can dwell inside us, Which is something thet the JW's deny.

2007-10-01 05:22:18 · update #1

7 answers

"Fulness of Deity" - Col. 2:9
Col. 2:9 - "For in him [Jesus] the whole fulness [Gr. pleroma] of deity [theotes] dwells[1] bodily" - RSV.

The word theotes appears only this once in the entire New Testament [NT] (and never in the ancient Greek translation of the Old Testament [OT]). It has been rendered in various trinitarian translations as follows: "Godhead" - KJV, ASV, NEB, REB, MLB; "deity" - RSV, NASB, NRSV, NIV, NAB, CBW, Mo, By; "divinity" - JB, NJB. It should be remembered also that "Godhead" as found in the older English Bibles (such as KJV) HAD A DIFFERENT MEANING THAN IT HAS COME TO HAVE IN MODERN ENGLISH. "In older English ['Godhead'] was a synonym for DIVINITY"[2] - p. 221, Vol. 2, A Dictionary of the Bible, Hastings, 1988 printing; and p. 362, An Intermediate Greek-English Lexicon, Liddell and Scott, Oxford University Press, 1994 printing.

Theotes simply does not literally mean "godhead," and the use of "godhead" by the KJV translators was not intended as some would understand it today.[3] Actually, the heavenly Father, alone, is the closest thing to a literal "Godhead" to be found anywhere in the inspired Scriptures - see 1 Cor. 11:3.
The trinitarian argument that Col. 2:9 proves that Jesus is God overlooks the common understanding of "fulness of ..." and "filled with ..." by those who used those common phrases in New Testament times. For example, the person who became "filled with Holy Spirit" (Eph. 5:18) was greatly INFLUENCED by that spirit, but he certainly DID NOT BECOME THE HOLY SPIRIT.

"...And having "the fulness" of someone or something could similarly mean being greatly INFLUNCED by that person or thing. The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology says:

"Just as a person can be FULL OF pain, joy, love, and virtue, he can also be said to be filled with God ..., i.e. possessed and inspired by God." - Vol. 1, p. 734.[4]

Surely we wouldn't expect anyone who is "filled with" God or who receives the "fulness of" God to actually be God! Nor would we expect anyone who has the "fulness of" Christ to actually BE Christ! In fact it clearly shows that he is NOT the person with whom he is "filled"! -RDB

To read more about this scripture, click:


http://groups.yahoo.com/group/JWquestions_and_answers_archives/message/111

2007-09-28 06:16:34 · answer #1 · answered by tik_of_totg 3 · 2 2

The New Testament – A New Translation in Plain English (1963 Charles K. Williams) , The Bible – An American Translation (Goodspeed & Smith 1935), and The New Testament in Modern Speech ( 1929 as printed in 1944 - Richard Weymouth) all use the phrase "God's nature" rather than "Godhead." Two of these translations predate the NWT as you can see. Clearly, then, this scripture varies in translation.

According to Liddell and Scott's Greek English Lexicon, the Greek word in question - theotes (the nominative form, from which theotetos is derived) means "divinity, divine nature." (Oxford, 1968). So being truly "divinity" or of "divine nature" does not make Jesus the Son of God coequal and coeternal with the Father any more than the fact that you and I are humans sharing "humanity" or "human nature" makes you and I coequal or the same age.

It should be remembered that Witnesses do not deny the divinity of Jesus and never have.

Hannah J Paul

2007-09-28 14:26:26 · answer #2 · answered by Hannah J Paul 7 · 2 2

Col 2:19.10 states “For in him dwelleth all the fullness of the Godhead bodily”. Bodily according to Strong’s dictionary is corporeal or physical. Now, think about this, if this meant that the FULLNESS of the Godhead means FULLNESS OF BEING GOD, then how come Jesus when he was human says, The Father is GREATER than me. Jesus also LEARNED obedience. Jesus when he was a human, doesn’t know the last days’ hour/time. If Jesus’ was fully God when he was human and he has FULLNESS of being God, how come there are these limitations? If there are limitations, or lackness of abilities, then it is not FULL.

===

Does this text proves that Jesus is the Almighty God?

"For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form, and you have been given fullness in Christ, who is the head over every power and authority."(COLOSSIANS 2:9-10)


Liddell and Scott’s A Greek-English Lexicon, in its new ninth edition,
completed in 1940 and reprinted in 1948, Volume I, defines Theiótes as
“divine nature, divinity” (page 788). Theótes it defines in exactly the
same way, as “divinity, divine nature,” and then cites as an example
Colossians 2:9.

It is also of interest to note that both Weymouth and An American
Translation render the passage, “the fullness of God’s nature.”

“The fullness” that dwells in Jesus is the decision of someone else, that is the Father Colossians 1:19 (KJ, Dy).

Again In Col 2:9, Strong’s dictionary defined theotēs also as divinity . Divinity means “the QUALITY or state of being DIVINE” .www.m-w.com , so it is correct to translate theotes as “divine quality”.

According to the KJ version : And to know the love of Christ, which passeth knowledge, that ye might be filled with all the fulness of God. Eph 3:19

Eph 3:19 will explain to you what Col 2:9 means. Having the fullness of God, or being filled with it does not mean that the one filled with the fullness of God , will become God himself nor make the Christian fully God himself. What the Christians will be filled is the fullness, not of BEING God, but of the divine qualities of God. This is the same in Jesus, what he is filled is the fullness of the divine qualities of his God, the Father.

What are these divine qualities? Love, kindness, etc.


Trinitarians are also wrong to say that when Jesus is described as having the qualities and title of God, with fullness of God, that he is God himself. Please notice that Jesus is never called Jah, Jah Jehovah, God of gods etc. At a certain point Jesus obedience was not yet perfect/complete, he needs to learn obedience.(Heb) If it is true that Jesus has all the fullness of being the Almighty God, then he should also have those titles/names/qualities all the time. But the Bible tells that Jesus have the fullness of divinity (divine qualities ) coming/given by God.

2007-10-01 11:50:41 · answer #3 · answered by trustdell1 3 · 0 1

2 Peter 1:4
Through these he has given us his very great and precious promises, so that through them you may participate in the DIVINE NATURE and escape the corruption in the world caused by evil desires.

Godhead or Divine Quality (or Nature)? For the answer, we turn to Col. 1:19

Colossians 1:19
For it was the Father's good pleasure for all the fullness to dwell in Him,

Good Pleasure - Greek Word [ eudokeō ]
it seems good to one, is one's good pleasure
think it good, choose, determine, decide
to do willingly
to be ready to, to prefer, choose rather
http://cf.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=G2106&Version=kjv

--==========--
IF Jesus was God, why did God decide, determine ect. this quality if he was already God based?

The fact is, he didn't always have this quality, and therefore this translation of Godhead or Deity cannot be correct.

Also, if you read Colossians 2:10, it says this fullness can dwell in others too..

So if Colossians1:19 was correct, does that make them God too? Absolutely not.

2007-09-28 13:11:22 · answer #4 · answered by VMO 4 · 1 3

Yet another example of the Watchtower society altering scripture to fit their own false teachings about Christ.
King James says 'For in him dwelleth all the fullness of the Godhead bodily'.
NIV : ' For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form'
New Revised Standard Version : 'For in him the whole fullness of Deity dwells bodily'.
Whilst the wording for these three versions may differ slightly they all have one thing in common; the Deity of Christ, God in bodily form. The words the WHOLE and ALL signify completeness with the Deity or God, not just a quality of God. I am sure, however, they will find some way of 'reasoning' around this.

2007-09-28 10:55:34 · answer #5 · answered by the truth has set me free 4 · 2 5

theotes.

V.4 "For though I am absent in the flesh, all the same I am with YOU in the spirit"

The verses are not talking about Jesus being divine bodily on earth since verse four already said he was dead and was with his apostles in spirit.

What then is the body of christ in Verse 9?

"One body there is, and one spirit, even as you were called in the one hope to which you were called; one Lord, one faith, one baptism; one God and Father of all persons, who is over all and through all and in all."

The body of Chist is none other then members of the 144,000 that is stated in verse 10.

"And so YOU are possessed of a fullness by means of him who is the head of all government and authority."

and in Col 1:24 "I am now rejoicing in my sufferings for YOU, and I, in my turn, am filling up what is lacking of the tribulations of the Christ in my flesh on behalf of his body, which is the congregation."

2007-09-28 10:39:54 · answer #6 · answered by keiichi 6 · 2 4

I see it as an attempt to change the meaning of the original text. the Scripture refers to the Deity of Christ. the change the scripture so they can go out and teach false doctrine.
Satan's biggest ploy, to get people to deny God.

2007-09-29 21:00:57 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2 3

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