how exactly does papal infallibility work?

Question

I heard that the Pope is only infallible when he is ex cathedra. What does this mean? Also, what happens if the ruling of a pope appears to contradict a previous ruling by another or the same pope?

Answer 1

It's a double-edge sword. Once officially proclaimed,it can't be retracted. That's why it is used so seldom. Only two such statements have been made, once by Pius IX and once by Pius XII, making belief in the Assumption and the Immaculate Conception of Mary official. No other statements of any kind have been made at this level of authority.

"Ex cathedra" means "from the chair", specifically the official seat of a bishop's power (his throne if you prefer). Effectively it means he can't be ambiguous about it being any other kind of statement. Some argue that he can only speak this way in council with the cardinals and bishops, while others say he can do it on his own. The procedure was never clearly defined because the First Vatican Council broke up prematurely because of war and never reconvened.

But it can only be applied to matters of faith and morals. And whenever it is used, it needs to be absolutely right, so it is unlikely that such a statement will ever be made about a subject that could possibly be disproven in this world. It's kind of like a nuclear weapon, too comprehensive to have any practical use.

Popes never contradict their predecessors. They know that their reputation depends on being consistent. Popes long past have embarassed themselves by such rash actions. That's one reason change comes so slowly. At best they can develop a new interpetation or style of management that builds on what has gone before (even if it is in a different direction).

Answer 2

First, you need to understand the history of Judeo-Christian prophets and priests.

The prophets and/or writers of the old testament acted infallibly when they were inspired by God to speak or write God's own words.

Prophets were required to preface any of their prophetic utterances with the phrase "Thus saith the Lord ..." while the old testament writers simply adhered to the established standards for writings of that type.

Under the Jewish Temple worship system, the High Priest had the power to speak infallibly, because he occupied the "Chair of Moses" and so possessed Moses' divine authority ... even if the man himself was hopelessly corrupt.

In fact, Caiphus, the one who condemned Jesus to death, prophesied (correctly, too) as he conducted Jesus' hasty trial.

When Jesus later gave Peter (individually) and the apostles (collectively, when in union with the pope) the unrestricted power to bind and loose on earth and in heaven, this was also a form of divine authority and assurance, and it's just about as close to infallibility as anyone could get, without being God himself.

This collective authority was demonstrated at the first church council, in Jerusalem, where Peter and the apostles agreed on certain very critical matters, and made them binding on Christians.

The individual authority of the pope to speak infallibly "from the chair" requires the pope to state in advance that he intends to do so.

In the entire history of the church, the pope has exercised his "ex-cathedra" powers only twice ... so most people fail to understand how seriously this matter is treated, inside the Catholic church.

Of course, the apostles and the evangelists who wrote the new testament of the bible also acted infallibly, under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, as did the pope and bishops together, in the subsequent church council(s) where the Canon of authentic scripture was determined.

Any time the pope and the bishops come together in an official church council, and they subsequently agree on a result, the proceedings are reduced to writing, all parties "sign off" on them, and the result is considered to be infallible, due to the guidance of the Holy Spirit that Jesus promised to his authentic church.

As far as I've been able to determine (and I have a reference book which lists every papal bull, decree, and councilar document, going all the way back to the beginning of the church) no pope and no council has actually ever overruled the official decrees of an earlier pope or council (although there have been qualifications and clarifications of some matters).

And should that event ever occur, it would be up to individual Catholics to reconcile that new decree with all of the earlier church law and doctrine on the subject ... much like the U. S. Supreme Court relies on legal precedent when it reviews cases that come before it.

In the case of the Catholic church, we have much more to work with, including a rich body of authentic old and new testament scripture, almost 4,000 years of established tradition going back to the apostles, and then, all the way back to Moses, Aaron, and the Prophets, plus the decrees from some twenty church councils ... not to mention the promised guidance of Jesus Christ and the Holy Spirit.

Answer 3

In Catholic theology, papal infallibility is probably going one among the channels of the infallibility of the Church. The infallible teachings of the pope could be per, or a minimum of no longer contradict, Sacred custom or Sacred Scripture. Papal infallibility would not represent that the pope is impeccable, i.e., that he's particularly exempt from criminal accountability to sin. In prepare, popes seldom use their power of infallibility, yet have confidence in the theory that the Church facilitates the place of work of the pope to be the ruling agent in determining what would be familiar as formal ideals in the church."[2] because of the fact the solemn assertion of Papal Infallibility by utilising Vatican I on July 18, 1870, this power has been used only as quickly as ex cathedra: in 1950 while Pope Pius XII defined the belief of Mary as being an editorial of religion for Roman Catholics.

Answer 4

Fact is . . . it doesn't.

Plenty of people have been burned at the stake, drawn and quartered, impaled or worse in the name of papal infallibility.

Originally, it was assumed to apply to all things. As papal political power declined and the scientific method won out over religious superstition (Gallileo comes to mind) papal infallibility took a real beating and has been on the retreat ever since.

Today, it applies only when the pope is speaking on matters of faith. Since Ratzinger (the current pope) puts his foot in his mouth with alarming regularity, papal handlers have tap danced quite fiercely trying to put some spin onto the whole infallibility issue.

Why not just fuggedaboutit?

Answer 5

Cathedra refers to the Bishop's throne in his home church--the 'Cathedral.'

The Pope is believed by Rome to be infallible on matters of Faith and Doctrine (not science, the arts, etc), when he declares he is making a pronouncement 'ex cathedra' (literally "From the Throne"). This is a very serious matter and has only been done I believe FOUR times in all history.

Answer 6

This is a concept much misunderstood. A few years before his death, the late Pope John Paul II started to write a text explaining his infallibility. Unfortunately in each completed draft Vatican scholars found so many errors that JP had to start all over again and sadly he failed to finish before his demise.

Answer 7

By ex-Cathedra, it is meant that the Pope is speaking in his official capacity as successor to Peter. Roman Catholics believe that the Holy Spirit protects the Church and will not allow a Pope to teach false doctrines regarding faith and morals.

Being infallible does not mean that the Pope is perfect, He is a fallen human just as the rest of us are, as I said Roman Catholics just believe that The Holy Spirit won't allow false doctrines to enter the church, and will prevent them from being declared by the Pope.

They get this belief from the scripture where Jesus gives Peter the keys to the kingdom of heaven and tells him that whatever he holds true on earth, God will hold true in heaven. As Catholics believe that Peter was the first Pope they hold that this statement is true for all popes that have succeeded Peter.

Roman Catholics would hold that it is impossible for one Pope to contradict another while speaking ex-Cathedra (if the previous pontiff had spoken ex-cathedra on the same subject) It is possible for one Pope to contradict another if not speaking ex cathedra (i.e. not speaking in his official capacity as successor of Peter)

Answer 8

It doesn't. The only thing in this world that is infallible is the Truth of God........"He shall speak great words against the most High" [could be rendered] "He shall speak as if he were God"... To none can this apply so well or so fully as to the popes of Rome. They have assumed infallibility, which belongs only to God. They profess to forgive sins, which belongs only to God. They profess to open and shut heaven, which belongs only to God. They profess to be higher than the kings of all the earth, which belongs only to God. And they go beyond God in pretending to loose whole nations from their oath of allegiance to their kings, when such kings do not please them! And shall wear out the saints. By wars, crusades, massacres, inquisitions, and persecutions of all kinds. What in this way have they not done against all those who have protested against their innovations, and refused to submit to their idolatrous worship? Witness the exterminating crusades published against the Waldenses and Albigenses.... And think to change times and laws. Appointing fasts and feasts; canonizing persons whom he chooses to call saints; granting pardons and indulgences for sins; instituting new modes of worship utterly unknown to the Christian Church; new articles of faith; new rules of practice; and reversing, with pleasure, the laws both of God and man.

Answer 9

If the Pope issues a 'bull' then whatever he has said becomes Dogma and irrefutable.

More 'despotism' that religion.

Answer 10

Thankfully we live in a country that doesn't require obedience to any Church. The very idea that "obedience" was, at one time, required for hundreds of years is sheer lunacy. But it did.