Why does the bible (KJV & NIV) differs? See Luke 10:1-2. KJV said 70 sent, but NIV said 72 sent. Thanks.?

Question

Which should i use then? Thanks.

Answer 1

KJV was translated from Masoretic Text (OT) & Textus Receptus (NT). Most other versions were translated from Biblia Hebraica (OT) & Westcott-Hort (NT). Below are several links for information about the different versions of the Bible. I only trust KJV.

This link is about Westcott & Hort
http://www.chick.com/reading/books/158/158_44.asp

This link is a topical index of Baptist Doctrines, and among them is info on KJV vs. other versions.
http://baptistpillar.com/Index%20Directory.htm#Abortion%20-%20Euthanasia

Answer 2

Many new manuscripts have been found since the KJV was first printed, older manuscripts and since then more Greek scholars have translated the Bible so I would lean toward the modern translation. The NIV is pretty accurate, I only chose a different word here and there but it doesn't change the meaning. I have never found the NIV to mistranslated a word, so I trust it. But I have seen the KJV chose words I would never chose. But I am rusty with my Greek I haven't translated in a couple weeks or months.

Answer 3

Use the KJV ONLY! The NIV is heretical and has deleted TONS of truth from the Bible. That is because the NIV is from the Wescott and Hort heresies. Wescott and Hort weren't believers. Read this:

http://www.jesus-is-savior.com/Books,%20Tracts%20&%20Preaching/Printed%20Books/James_Melton/fighting_back.htm#fight8

Use the KJV, and don't trust the NIV.

Answer 4

If you really want to know, then the best source is to learn Greek and Hebrew. The KJV, with all it faults is the best of all the translations so far. The Greek and Hebrew language has a lot of word that are illustrative. It is the same thing as like if I wrote to you and said "Do you believe in God?" To read that you might think that I'm asking if you have a belief in my God, when what I meant is do you trust in God. "Do you believe IN God?" A lot of translations just give you the base word. Check out this web site, they teach you the languages and the message that the writers wrote. www.drgenescott.com

Answer 5

The KJV and the NIV have some differences in them yes. I believe the King James Version is the only bible to use as it's the origonal translation from hebrew.

Answer 6

. faster or later a superstitious theory arose between the Jews that it grow to be incorrect even to pronounce the divine call (represented by utilising the Tetragrammaton). only what foundation grow to be initially assigned for discontinuing using the call isn't surely familiar. some carry that the call grow to be seen as being too sacred for imperfect lips to communicate. however the Hebrew Scriptures themselves provide no info that any of God’s authentic servants ever felt any hesitancy approximately saying his call. Non-Biblical Hebrew records, such because of the fact the so-pronounced as Lachish Letters, teach the call grow to be utilized in usual correspondence in Palestine for the duration of the latter component to the seventh century B.C.E. yet another view is that the point grow to be to maintain non-Jewish peoples from understanding the call and helpful misusing it. even nonetheless, Jehovah himself pronounced that he might ‘have his call declared in each and all the earth’ (Ex 9:sixteen; learn 1Ch sixteen:23, 24; playstation 113:3; Mal a million:11, 14), to be familiar even by utilising his adversaries. (Isa sixty 4:2) The call grow to be in reality familiar and utilized by utilising pagan countries the two in pre-elementary era situations and in the early centuries of the conventional era. (The Jewish Encyclopedia, 1976, Vol. XII, p. 119) yet another declare is that the point grow to be to guard the call from use in magical rites. if so, this grow to be unfavorable reasoning, as that is evident that the extra mysterious the call grew to grow to be with the aid of disuse the extra it would in wonderful condition the applications of practicers of magic.

Answer 7

KJV, only 1 significant figure. NIV, 2 significant figures. Go with the least sig figs, it's scientific protocol!

Answer 8

Two different translations of course. The NIV has a footnote that plainly states that some translations state seventy rather than seventy-two. There are many problems involved in going from one language to the next.

hope this helps.........

Answer 9

I dont' have my Greek text with me but I imagine this was just a minor mss error that the NIV corrected with more reliable manuscripts.

Answer 10

thats because these different bibles are different VERSIONS. its even in the name...King James VERSION...New International VERSION. who really knows what was to have been origionally written...the translations and versions have been distorted from the first texts through Greek, Latin, Romantic Languages, Germanic Languages, and finally Today's English.
nothing can tell you the truth except the truth...and the versions of it may as well be white lies to some extent...saying one thing for one purpose and another saying differntly for a different purpose.

nikolae