If water baptism is not required for the remission of sins, then why does Peter say that in Acts 2.38?

Answer 1

Peter said it because Jesus has “all authority” and the apostles were to teach the things He had commanded! (Matthew 28:18-20)

Peter said it because Jesus said, “He that believes and is baptized shall be saved”! (Mark 16:16)

Some say you believe and are saved and then you shall be baptized.
This is not the same thing Jesus said! It is not in the same order!

What would Jesus have said if he had meant, “He that believes and is baptized shall be saved”?

I believe Jesus said what He meant! I believe Jesus! “He that believes not shall be condemned.” (Mark 16:16)

Peter said it because Jesus said (speaking of himself), “And that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem.” (Luke 24:47)

Notice these 5 points:
1.“Repentance…should be preached”
2.“Remission of sins should be preached”
3.“In His name” (i.e. – by his authority, or according to his instructions)
4.“among all nations”
5.“Beginning at Jerusalem”

In Acts 2, Verse 5 says men were gathered together from all nations (#4) in Jerusalem (#5). In verse 38 Peter preached “Repent” (#1) “and be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ” (#3) and this was “for the remission of sins” (#2)!

The American Standard version says, “And Peter said unto them, Repent ye, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ unto the remission of your sins…” Notice repentance and baptism are “unto the remission of your sins”, or “so that your sins will be forgiven” (CEV).

Peter said this because it was exactly what Christ had commanded!

Peter said it because it was true!

Peter also said, "Baptism now saves". (1 Peter 3:21) What would he have said if he had meant "Baptism saves"?

Answer 2

No one has taken the covenant position yet, so I'll give that a try. If baptism replaces circumcision, then we have a parallel in this passage. Circumcision was required in the Old Testament in order to be part of God's people, for the forgiveness of sins and yes, to save them. It was up to God to accept or deny that circumcision, but it was a very serious event, practiced on male babies if they were lucky enough to get it done eight days after birth, and adult male converts as their bravery dictated. So in Acts 2:38, we see something that the Jews would more than likely have seen as a repeat of circumcision and therefore replacing it. Where "baptism now saves you," and "for the forgiveness of sins," yes, under a new covenant, pointing to Christ himself as the new Sacrificial Lamb, the fulfillment of the law and the prophets. It reads the same because it is the same, just a different administration is all.

Answer 3

A key here is the word "for" (eis) - a word that can mean for or because of. If eis is taken to mean "for" then it is taken to mean that baptism is essential to salvation; if it means "because of", then it is not. However, "into" is the closest approximation of eis in this verse, so that Peter tells the crowd to be "baptized into the remission of sins." Read in light of the Semitic Totality Concept, it indicates that believers will practice this behavior to validate their commitment to Christ.
Does the lack of the behavior mean one is not saved? No, but one does have to ask why anyone would not produce the validating behavior.
Thought and action are expected, under the Semitic Totality paradigm, to correspond. The conversion and the baptism are regarded as one process, not because the latter is required for salvation, but because it is expected in light of salvation. (Hence it is off the mark to make much of that Peter commanded the baptism, and thereby conclude that baptism is a "necessity" rather than an inevitable result.

Answer 4

There are two types of acceptable baptism ... the first is by 'water' (washing away the sins) and the second is 'by fire' ... being in combat or having one's life 'in danger' and accepting Christ into your life then.
In the King James version I have, it says only 'be baptized' and not by 'water' or by 'fire' ... and it may be that is what Peter 'meant' to say, but the Bible is only the 'stories' and not 'from God's own mouth' ...
I have a suggestion for you ... since it's EASY to get baptized in water, if you haven't been baptized, why don't you just 'do it' ... it's always better to be 'safe' than 'sorry.' You don't have to go back to the church after you are 'baptized' if you don't want to ... but do get baptized by an ORDAINED minister or priest.

Answer 5

Acts 2:38 says "Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost." see the comma after repent? that means pause and begin a new thought. Repent - then be baptized. you cannot use half of one verse to support a claim.
Rom 10:9-10 says 9That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved.

10For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness; and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation.
did God forget the water? Must not be necessary for salvation.

Did the thief on the cross get baptized? No and Jesus said he would be in paradise today. No water needed.

John 3:16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.

No water there. Water gets you wet not saves. Baptism is to show as a public testiomony that you are identifying youself with the death, burial, and ressurection of Christ (by the way you have to be immersed to show that, not sprinkled but thats another arguement i guess)

No where in the bible does it say water saves. But all over the bible it says you are saved thru Jesus Eph 2:8-9 8For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God: 9Not of works, lest any man should boast. If water could save put a firehose next to every pulpit and lets spray everyone.

Answer 6

BINGO: You are correct sir. Christians have always interpreted the Bible literally when it declares, "Baptism . . . now saves you, not as a removal of dirt from the body, but as an appeal to God for a clear conscience, through the resurrection of Jesus Christ" (1 Pet. 3:21; cf. Acts 2:38, 22:16, Rom. 6:3–4, Col. 2:11–12).

Thus the early Church Fathers wrote in the Nicene Creed (A.D. 381), "We believe in one baptism for the forgiveness of sins."

And the Catechism of the Catholic Church states: "The Lord himself affirms that baptism is necessary for salvation [John 3:5]. . . . Baptism is necessary for salvation for those to whom the Gospel has been proclaimed and who have had the possibility of asking for this sacrament [Mark 16:16]" (CCC 1257).

The Christian belief that baptism is necessary for salvation is so unshakable that even the Protestant Martin Luther affirmed the necessity of baptism. He wrote: "Baptism is no human plaything but is instituted by God himself. Moreover, it is solemnly and strictly commanded that we must be baptized or we shall not be saved. We are not to regard it as an indifferent matter, then, like putting on a new red coat. It is of the greatest importance that we regard baptism as excellent, glorious, and exalted" (Luther's "Large Catechism" 4:6).

Yet Christians have also always realized that the necessity of water baptism is a normative rather than an absolute necessity. There are exceptions to water baptism: It is possible to be saved through "baptism of blood," martyrdom for Christ, or through "baptism of desire", that is, an explicit or even implicit desire for baptism.

Thus the Catechism of the Catholic Church states: "Those who die for the faith, those who are catechumens, and all those who, without knowing of the Church but acting under the inspiration of grace, seek God sincerely and strive to fulfill his will, are saved even if they have not been baptized" (CCC 1281; the salvation of unbaptized infants is also possible under this system; cf. CCC 1260–1, 1283).

Answer 7

in John 3 Jesus says " believe & be baptized " its an outward show of what just took place in the heart. its also a matter of obedience ! the word says obedience is better than sacrifice . Water baptizism should be by immercment ( totaly under the water ) because it shows the death to self , & being raised up into new life in Jesus Christ.

Answer 8

Because Peter is a Jew.
And Jews believe in the mikveh.
So Peter is telling people that they should mikveh just as they did in the OT for certain sins.

Look up mikveh, look up Peter is a Jew, lol. You'll see what I'm talking about

Answer 9

Yes. It is required according to John the Baptist.
Spiritual cleansing has a set of rules. And you must
follow it, because the WORD says so.

Answer 10

I don't know who told you it wasn't required, for you're correct in following Acts 2:38 Think about it, would Jesus have allowed Himself to be baptized for an example to us if it weren't necessary?