Yes, many times.
2007-09-25 02:09:22
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answer #1
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answered by Justsyd 7
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It began hundreds of years ago, when the Church changed the Bible. . .
The "New Testament": Pagan revenge
Between G-d's own miracles and the Jewish teaching of His Word, the pagan priest/pastorhoods of Egypt, Greece, and Rome were steadily losing their power over the gentile populations. They decided to fight back by creating a new religion, one that would claim to be the fulfillment of the Hebrew "Old Testament," yet would bring back the pagan lies in a new disguise.
Thus the "New Testament" was written, in Greek rather than Hebrew, and attached to the original Hebrew scriptures to try to change their meaning back toward paganism.
The "New Testament" tried to change G-d from One, as in the Hebrew scriptures, into a "trinity" as in Egyptian cults or the eastern religions of Hinduism and Buddhism. It described Jesus as G-d in a human body, like the pagans always described Pharoah and other wicked kings. It declared G-d's Law to be a "curse" that no one can truly obey, announced that there must be a "mediator" between G-d and man, and pretended that salvation could now be achieved outside the Law.
To blind the gentile nations, the "New Testament" also warned people not to learn from the Jews, declaring that Israel no longer possessed the true, complete Word of G-d.
In the Bible, the book of Daniel warned of an evil power--a false religion--that would believe in the true "G-d of fortresses... plus a god its fathers did not know." This religion would "speak bizarre words about the Most High, wear out the holy ones (the Jews), and plan to change the festivals and the religious Law."7 The Christian Church has indeed replaced Passover with Easter (the pagan holiday of Astarte and Ishtar) and Hanukah with Christmas (the pagan winter holiday).
http://www.noahide.com/paganism.htm
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2007-09-25 09:08:57
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answer #2
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answered by Mithrianity 3
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First, there is no such thing as "The" bible. There are many different bible versions & they say different thing. The term "Pagan" is a translation of a roman term "Paganus" which is meant as a slur for rural people, similar to "Hick". I believe in many bibles there are references to witches. But, to answer your specific question, current bibles are constantly being revised & wording changed. I an aware recently that the modern bible has changed the term "man" to "people" , & the term "slave" to "servant" to be more politically correct. So you may very well find the word pagan somewhere in it.
2007-09-25 09:30:34
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answer #3
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answered by Orestes 4
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Depends on which translation u use. In the NIV the word pagan can be found in the book of 2 Kings and 2 Chronicles.
2007-09-25 09:09:38
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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yeah.
see Kings 23:5
Isaiah 2:6
Isaiah 57:8
Lamentations 1:10
Amos 7:17
Zephaniah 1:4
Matthew 5:47, 6:7, 18:17
Luke 12:30
1 Corinthians 5:1, 10:7 12:2
1 Peter 2:12, 4:3
III John 1:7
2007-09-25 09:18:51
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Nope. Neither is witch in the original texts.
I will admit to obvious implications but I am pretty sure that was added in later. The word Pagan in general didn't come about as a derogitory term until WAY after Jesus died.
2007-09-25 09:10:29
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answer #6
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answered by ~Heathen Princess~ 7
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It depends upon which Bible you are reading. Pagan is not in the KJV. However, it is found in other versions.
2007-09-25 09:11:27
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answer #7
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answered by Soul Shaper 5
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Hell no Pagani werent formed till 2000. Aint no Ferraris either but Moses had a Triumph and there is something about a Ford.
2007-09-25 09:09:32
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answer #8
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answered by Alan S 2
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aren't there more important issues in the world today than wasting mind over solving a 2000 year old manual ???
2007-09-25 09:09:02
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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No - just heathen.
2007-09-25 09:17:50
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answer #10
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answered by Jeancommunicates 7
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