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Translations of a certain scripture don't count because they can be rendered many different ways based on the translators opinion.. But what God was referring to is removing anything from the original writings or adding something to do...


Has this been done? Yes it sure has.
---====Corrupt Scriptures====---
Added text = [[ ]]
Changed text = [ ]
--==YHWH's Name from the New Testament==--
YHWH replaced with Lord & God ( Not LORD & GOD )

--==1 Timothy 3:16==--
(King James Version)
And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: [God] was manifest in the flesh...

--==1 John 5:7==--
(King James Version)
[[For there are three that testify in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit]], and these three are one.


What do you think about these adjusted text?

(proof of changes located below.)

2007-09-24 17:49:03 · 12 answers · asked by VMO 4 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

--==YHWH's Name==--
Jerome reports that in his time “certain ignorant ones, because of the similarity of the characters, when they would find [the Tetragrammaton] in Greek books, were accustomed to read ΠΙΠΙ.”

In later copies of the Septuagint, God’s name was removed and words like “God” (The·os′) and “Lord” (Ky′ri·os) were substituted. We know that this happened because we have early fragments of the Septuagint where God’s name was included and later copies of those same parts of the Septuagint where God’s name has been removed.

The same thing occurred in the “New Testament,” or Christian Greek Scriptures. Professor George Howard goes on to say: “When the Hebrew form for the divine name was eliminated in favor of Greek substitutes in the Septuagint, it was eliminated also from the New Testament quotations of the Septuagint. . . . Before long the divine name was lost to the Gentile church except insofar as it was reflected in the contracted surrogates or remembered by scholars.”

2007-09-24 17:56:01 · update #1

--==Jeremiah==--
prophēteia - Prophecy
a discourse emanating from divine inspiration and declaring the purposes of God

So yes, hes referring to the Bible..

2007-09-24 18:02:49 · update #2

Yes I'm aware this is referring to the the Book of Revelation, but God does feel the same about the Bible. Do you think he won't care if anyone removes or adds anything to the other books of the Bible?

2007-09-24 18:20:53 · update #3

The question is: Do you think its ok to remove things from the bible BESIDES the book of Revelation?

2007-09-24 18:23:30 · update #4

--==curly sue==--

Anyone who looks at the early manuscripts will see his name was taken out of the new Testament.

A clear example of that is when the apostles, disciples, and Jesus himself quoted the OT.

Acts 2:21
21And everyone who calls
on the name of the Lord will be saved.

Joel 2:32
32 And everyone who calls
on the name of the LORD will be saved;

Theres many times they quoted the OT when YHWH was suppose to be there..

Why didn't Jesus use Jehovah's name in his prayers? Well you're wrong, he has.

John 12:28
28"Father, glorify Your name " Then a voice came out of heaven: "I have both glorified it, and will glorify it again."

John 17:26
and I have made YOUR NAME known to them, and WILL MAKE IT KNOWN, so that the love with which You loved Me may be in them, and I in them."

2007-09-25 05:07:54 · update #5

--==curly sue==--
Bibles always use brackets to complete a sentence or to make it understandable for the reader.

If the NWT Translated this WITHOUT brackets, then this is how it would be translated.

Colossians 1:16
16 For THROUGH (en) him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things were created THROUGH (dia) him and for him.

Most would not understand if it was translated this why, and thats why it would be ok to add brackets to this sentence.. this is done in English translated bible, to complete a rendering.

2007-09-25 05:31:03 · update #6

--==curly sue==--

Adding a "A" is not adding anything to the Bible. words require a "A" when its needed.. Has this been done in other scriptures?

Yes, it has because "A" were added when you come across words such as "a devil", "a man", "a woman" ect. So this is not adding anything to the Bible.

John 1:1 the Coptic Translation has articles such as "a", and they translated John 1:1 to "a god".

John 20:28? Jesus was called a God by Thomas, but Thomas already heard and knew that Jesus referred to the Father as the only true God. Jesus also called my God in Heaven.

Moses, was to serve as God to the people.
Exodus 4:16

2007-09-25 05:37:08 · update #7

--==Christian Soldier==--

Why don't you respond to my post or my emails. You said we were going to discuss the Bible, but stopped after our first conversation. You couldn't defend your beliefs, and I thinks thats why you're ignoring me. Don't say someone is wrong when you can't discuss the Bible with anyone.

2007-09-25 05:38:41 · update #8

12 answers

Jesus Christ promises the conquering Christian that He will grant him to eat of “the tree of life, which is in the paradise of God.” (Re 2:7) Again, in the last verses of the book of Revelation, we read: “And if anyone takes anything away from the words of the scroll of this prophecy, God will take his portion away from the trees of life and out of the holy city, things which are written about in this scroll.” In the context of these two Scripture texts, Christ Jesus is speaking to those who are conquerors, who will not “be harmed by the second death” (Re 2:11), who will be given “authority over the nations” (Re 2:26), who will be made a “pillar in the temple of my God” (Re 3:12), and who will sit down with Christ in his heavenly throne.

Therefore the tree or trees could not be literal, for conquerors who eat are those who are partakers of the heavenly calling (Heb 3:1), with places in heaven reserved for them. The tree(s) would therefore be symbolic of God’s provision for sustained life, in this case, the heavenly, immortal life that the faithful ones are given as conquerors with Christ.

Those of the John class must draw attention to “the prophecy” of Revelation. They must not hide it or add to it. Its message must be preached openly, “from the housetops.” Revelation is inspired of God. Who would dare change a word of what God himself has spoken and transmitted through the one who is now the reigning King, Jesus Christ? Certainly, such a person would deserve to lose out in the quest for life and suffer the plagues that must come upon Babylon the Great and upon the whole world.

2007-09-24 19:20:35 · answer #1 · answered by BJ 7 · 2 2

I'm with Unsilenced Lamb. And by the way, for every scholar who argues that the tetragrammaton was in the original Greek scriptures there is another who will argue that it was not. The fact remains that there are many very early copies of NT documents which date from well before the third century, which is when 'the great apostacy' was supposed to have taken place and Jahs name removed, NONE of which use the tertragrammaton, with the exception of the shortened form Jah in Revelation. Answer this for me if you can, when telling his disciples the model prayer, why did Jesus not use the name Jehovah? His disciples would have been well aware of it, but Jesus would know that there were millions and would be more millions who had never even heard of it? I understand why Jesus might not have addressed Jah by name, after all I don't call my father Bill, but he was telling others how to pray, 'pray then this way'. Also, is Jehovah so weak that he could not protect his name from being removed? After all, he has preserved the Bible despite numerous attempts to destroy or ban it, why not protect his name? If we are going to nit pick about words added or taken away the NWT is the worst of the lot, e.g. the word 'other' has been added to Colossians 1:16. In early copies this word was in brackets to 'help the reader understand', however, rather than helping it completely alters the meaning. What should read "ALL things have been created through him and for him" (NRSV) now reads "Because by means of him ALL OTHER things were created," (NWT); see the difference. I suggest you read a copy of the 1985 Greek Interlinear before you cast any more aspersions on other Bible translations, written by the WBTS it clearly shows how the society have added and taken away to back up their own teachings, such as the letter 'a' in John 1:1, go to John 20:28 and you will see that the Greek literally says Jesus is "the God" (HO THEOS), in complete contrast with John 1:1, which is right? I'll pray that the Holy Spirit works within you and shows you.

2007-09-25 04:49:59 · answer #2 · answered by the truth has set me free 4 · 2 2

In Revelation 11:5, John is referring to those who misinterpret (“hurt them”) the Holy Scriptures either by mistranslating them or presenting them in a way that they were not intended to be presented. The editors of the New Testament, for example, transformed the canon of scripture into what they felt best served their interests and agendas at the time. They edited, transposed, added to, and deleted any part that did not fit their perception of the doctrine of Christ, which at the time they began to organize the New Testament, was far from what Christ intended. John knew this, and wrote Revelation in such a way that they would not understand his words. He includes these religious leaders in his figurative expression of the “locusts” (see commentary on Revelation 9:3–10). These, as well as all modern-day religious leaders, never had a clue that he was referring to them.

...When Christ comes, the people will be judged according to how they treated each other. When the world’s religious leaders teach their followers to do anything other than “do unto another as you would want done unto you,” they “hurt” the word of God by “trampling it under foot.” When the scriptures are revealed in their purity, especially the words Christ spoke, these leaders and those who have changed and corrupted the word of God, will be figuratively “killed” by the sharp sword coming out of the mouth of Christ.

2007-09-25 17:14:59 · answer #3 · answered by smallone 4 · 1 0

In NWT strips Jesus of His absolute deity. The Wtachtower Society teaches that the Father is God Almighty while Jesus is a LESSER god.

NWT has gone through major changes through the years. The translators of the NWT were not biblical linquistics. This translation is an insult to the Word of God.

(The translators Nathan Knorr, Frederick Franz, Alert Schoeder, George Gangas, and Milton Henschel were unqualified for the task.)

2007-09-26 10:03:11 · answer #4 · answered by Nina, BaC 7 · 1 1

So, the KJV isn't the final translation. what's the manuscript information for the insertion of "Jehovah" interior the Christian Greek Scriptures? 0, in all probability? Even Jason BeDuhn, oft-quoted by way of Watchtowerites of their professional-NWT argumentation, admits that the Divine call does no longer belong there. If God will curse people who've messed around with purely one e book, what's going to His judgement be upon people who've inserted "Jehovah" the place it does no longer belong, some 237 cases? the place's the historic information for the alleged removing of "Jehovah" from the NT, for the reason that truthfully this type of huge operation does no longer have long previous ignored and unrecorded? wager what? there is none. yet greater hypothesis on the area of Arian enormous Brother. with regard to the Alpha and the Omega, Revelation 22:thirteen for sure exhibits that the Lord Jesus utilized the identify TO HIMSELF, even with the Watchtower's exceptionally much embarrasing attempt to describe this away, on the price of the circulate of the passage. who's "coming as we communicate" in verse 12, which on the instant precedes verse thirteen? who's "coming as we communicate" in verse 20? You do the maths.

2016-10-05 07:51:28 · answer #5 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

The entirety of Your word is truth, And every one of Your righteous judgments endures forever. Ps. 119:160

For You have magnified Your word above all Your name. Ps. 138:2

What God has written is correct and that includes the verses you quoted above. (2 Tim. 3:16-17) It is the watchtower who has altered those verses to suit their own doctrine. As a result the watchtower is in BIG trouble with God!

You shall not add to the word which I command you, nor take from it, that you may keep the commandments of the LORD your God which I command you. Deut. 4:2

How about some more examples of watchtower alterations.

1. Gen. 1:1-2 - "In [the] beginning God created the heavens and the earth.
Now the earth proved to be formless and waste and there was darkness upon the surface of [the] watery deep; and God's active force was moving to and fro over the surface of the waters." (New World Translation, Emphasis added)
1. The Watchtower Bible and Tract Society denies that the Holy Spirit is alive, third person of the Trinity. Therefore, they have changed the correct translation of "...the Spirit of God was moving over the surface of the waters," to say "...and God's active force was moving to and fro over the surface of the waters."
2. Zech. 12:10 - In this verse God is speaking and says "And I will pour out on the house of David and the inhabitants of Jerusalem a spirit of grace and supplication. They will look on me, the one they have pierced, and they will mourn for him as one mourns for an only child, and grieve bitterly for him as one grieves for a firstborn son" (Zech. 12:10, NASB).
1. The Jehovah's Witnesses change the word "me" to "the one" so that it says in their Bible, "...they will look upon the one whom they have pierced..."
Since the Jehovah's Witnesses deny that Jesus is God in flesh, then Zech. 12:10 would present obvious problems--so they changed it.
3. John 1:1 - They mistranslate the verse as "a god." Again it is because they deny who Jesus is and must change the Bible to make it agree with their theology. The Jehovah's Witness version is this: "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god."
4. Col. 1:15-17 - The word "other" is inserted 4 times. It is not in the original Greek, nor is it implied. This is a section where Jesus is described as being the creator of all things. Since the Jehovah's Witness organization believes that Jesus is created, they have inserted the word "other" to show that Jesus was before all "other" things, implying that He is created.
1. There are two Greek words for "other": heteros, and allos. The first means another of a different kind, and the second means another of the same kind. Neither is used at all in this section of scripture. The Jehovah's Witness have changed the Bible to make it fit their aberrant theology.
5. Heb. 1:6 - In this verse they translate the Greek word for worship, proskuneo, as "obeisance." Obeisance is a word that means to honor, show respect, even bow down before someone. Since Jesus, to them, is created, then he cannot be worshiped. They have also done this in other verses concerning Jesus, i.e., Matt. 2:2,11; 14:33; 28:9.
6. Heb. 1:8 - This is a verse where God the Father is calling Jesus God: "But about the Son he says, ‘Your throne, O God, will last for ever and ever, and righteousness will be the scepter of your kingdom.'" Since the Jehovah's Witnesses don't agree with that they have changed the Bible, yet again, to agree with their theology. They have translated the verse as "...God is your throne..." The problem with the Jehovah's Witness translation is that this verse is a quote from Psalm 45:6 which, from the Hebrew, can only be translated as "...Your throne, O God, will last for ever and ever; a scepter of justice will be the scepter of your kingdom." To justify their New Testament translation they actually changed the OT verse to agree with their theology, too!

The NWT translation is not a good translation. It has changed the text to suit its own theological bias in many places.

2007-09-25 05:14:25 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1 2

What you are describing is using a different word for the name of God. It is not adding to or taking away from the words of the book.

edit: Translating it into English from the original language and using the English word Lord instead of the Aramaic word YHWH is not taking away anything. It is translating it into a different language. Unless we are all going to learn to read the bible in it's original language this is the best we have. Your argument could be used for every single word that was translated into English.

2007-09-24 18:08:31 · answer #7 · answered by Mr. E 7 · 0 3

John wrote those words when he wrote the Book of Revelation. They only apply to the book of Revelation. Remember the Bible is made up of 66 individual books.

My copy of the Bible has LORD when referring to God.

2007-09-24 18:08:05 · answer #8 · answered by 9_ladydi 5 · 2 2

LOL...I think yo are completely inaccurate in which bible has the corrupt scriptures....JR...It seems to me that god is giving you all the evidence you need to become an accurate follower of his Christian Church...and because of your pride..traditions or pure blindness, you refuse to look....


you continue to support man and leave God in the back
seat...sad

Take the rafter out of your own heretical Bible before you look at the straw in others.

2007-09-25 03:01:30 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1 3

Yea but most time's they just say god told them a certain thing is immoral or wrong (strangely enough something they don't approve of). Such as suicide

*Please note, I did not read anything past your first sentence.

2007-09-24 17:52:43 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 2 2

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