2007-09-23 08:35:52 · 5 answers · asked by ninique305 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
Because Chinese phonetics are too different from French phonetics. It's the same in all European langauges. In Sweden, nowadays we use the official Chinese pinyin spelling, Beijing, instead of the old Swedish (originally from German) "Peking", but actually the pronounciation they produce when they say "Beijing" is even more far away from the Chinese pronounciation than it was before when they said "Peking" ...
2007-09-23 13:23:49 · answer #1 · answered by juexue 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Not only French, by the way. In Slavic languages Beijing is also called Pekin.
2007-09-23 08:52:17 · answer #2 · answered by Natalie V 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In French as in almost all languages some place names are translated according to phonetic particularities of the language. Why would English speaking people say Paris instead of Paree, Moscow instead of Moskva, Warsaw instead of Varshava, Rome instead of Roma, Bucharest instead of Bookooreshti not to mention some German ones? Pékin is perfectly right for them.
2007-09-23 08:58:49 · answer #3 · answered by anton p 4 · 3⤊ 0⤋
There's no 'j' sound in French like in 'John' - only the sound as in 'measure' - so it's easier for the French to stick with Pekin.
When you go to a Chinese restaurant, I bet you order Peking Duck rather than Beijing Duck...
2007-09-23 08:45:19 · answer #4 · answered by JJ 7 · 0⤊ 4⤋
it's easier to say : pekin
2007-09-23 08:42:13 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋